Hacer(le) daño

Question

Does this phrase always require the indirect object pronoun?

e.g. hacerles daño a las flores / hacer daño a las flores

I'm confused because the translation on the site doesn't use it in an example.

Answer 1

"hacer daño a alguien -> to hurt somebody "

From the dictionary -- and that's why I was confused.

"Alguien" is an indirect object, so the indirect pronoun should be included here as well.

A general statement with no indirect object doesn´t require the indirect pronoun, ie: "Maltratar a esta herramienta puede causar daño."

Answer 2

The word translate in black print with a goldenrod-colored background actually takes you to the dictionary, just like the word dictionary in white print on the blue toolbar. The word translation on that same blue toolbar takes you to the machine translations. Anyway, the dictionary is M U C H more reliable than the machine translators.

The Answers forum contains

•No le hagas daño.

•Te juro hoy no quise hacerte daño.

Under the dictionary's listing for daño, all the examples use pronouns.

"Te juro hoy no quise hacerte daño." Is that really what it says? It should be "Te juro que hoy no quise hacerte daño. - 002067fe, May 15, 2011

Thanks Tom but yes, that's what it has. The next to last example for the word "daño" - Sabor, May 15, 2011

Thanks! SD is trying to catch all those little mistakes. - 002067fe, May 16, 2011

Answer 3

In general, if an indirect object is in the sentence, then an indirect object pronoun should be used...whether that actual indirect object is included or not (this is NOT done with direct objects).

So, in hacerles daño a las flores, les = las flores.

This is strange to us, because in English a pronoun replaces a noun and here that is not happening. Again, this is only in the case of indirect objects, and one gets used to it after a while.

Answer 4

"hacer daño a alguien -> to hurt somebody "

From the dictionary -- and that's why I was confused.

Answer 5

do them harm

harm them

harm the flowers.