correct use of hacer
I have come across the following phrase while watching Lomastv, "hacé que lo entienda ella," which is translated - make her understand. My question is why the tilde on "hacé"? Could this just be a mistype or is this legitimate? I cannot find "hacé" in the conjugation of "hacer."
5 Answers
Hacé is the imperative conjugation of the vos (means tú) form.
Its equivalent in the tú form would be "haz".
Masquenada is correct on this one. I had the same question years back when I began conversing some friends from Uruguay. I haven't mastered or used the "voseo" form in a long time but I remember that accent marks are often added . At first glance, someone who has studied Spanish, but not vos, would be a little confused.
I'm Argentinian. We use that tilde on many words! But I think that is not correct! For ex, we say "Corré", "llevá", and words like those, but the correct way is "corre"and "lleva".
So, we don't really have a good pronunciation! If you use some words in that way, you'll sound perfectly normal here, in Argentina (or uruguay and countrys around here). You have to learn these things, but I don't recommend you to use them, because is not a neutral spanish!!!
I hope that help you 
"Hacé is the imperative conjugation of the vos (means tú) form. Its equivalent in the tú form would be "haz".
This statement is partially incorrect. "Haz" is the imperative conjugation for "tú", but "hacé" does not exist. "Hace" is present tense informal (he/she/formal you (usted)). Present tense for vosotros is "hacéis" and the imperative form for vosotros is "haced".
"Hacé" was just a typo. If what you saw was based in Spain, it should by "haced". If it is informal second person (tú), then it should be "haz".
