The Linguistic Evolution of Rolling the "R" in Spanish?
I have tried to research this question both on this site and elsewhere, but I am unable to find an answer. I am interested to know, in terms of the evolution of the spanish language, how the rolling r's came to be? I'm sorry, I don't know exactly how to articulate my question, I hope that my request is understood. I would like to understand how this particular use of the language evolved. Perhaps there is a simple answer!
Many thanks!
6 Answers
Hola Sheily:
I tried some research, and could not find your answer...However this may put you on the right track:
The "RR" sound is called "Alveolar trill". (In non-technical terms, the word "trilling" is used).
If you search for "Alveolar trill", you will eventually find your answer.
Here is a link to help you on your way:
I would assume that it started as a regional thing in areas if Spain and as the empire expanded it expanded its influence and way of speaking the language to other areas, and eventually it became a standard of the language. However that is just a wild guess.
There is nothing exclusively Spanish about being able to roll one's R's, that I can say for sure. I am from a country reached by the "influence" of Spain, and we have words with R (with their R's rolled, of course) that aren't borrowed from Spanish. I doubt that (being able to trill the R) we got that from the Spaniards.
I am interested to know, in terms of the evolution of the spanish language, how the rolling r's came to be?
This sounded to me like saying the rolled R is an "unnatural" way to enunciate, and to me that view is perfectly understandable. During those years when I was starting to learn English I found the soft R (or whatever it is called) "unnatural", even corny, because that just isn't how we pronounce it in our language. So I guess it really is a matter of perspective.
Anyway, treating the question as academic, your guess (if you have one) is as good as mine.
I'd say though that it really does require much speculation to provide a definitve answer, because just like what Izanoni pointed out, we have no way of "hearing" the evidence.
The sound existed in Basque and Gascon, languages spoken in the north of Spain, very close to where Castellano was born. It also exists in other varieties in Apulia and Sicily in Italy, and Corsica.
On top of that, before the Romans came, the people in the Iberian peninsula spoke many now extinct languages, but we know that the Iberian language had two types of R sound, and it is very likely that one of them was the thrilled one.
While this is probably not the origin, Spain was occupied by Arabs for nearly 8 centuries, and they also have the thrilled R.
This sounds exists in many languages, like Welsh, Scottish English, Greek, Hindi, Czech, Finnish, Persian, Polish, Zapotec (in México)...
Seeing that it exists in so many languages, it only seems natural that such a sounds exists, like many other languages not present in either English or Spanish.
I know that Hungarian uses a rolled R. Just the short version.
I'm fluent Hungarian, and know this first-hand. And I never had trouble with Spanish sounds, including R. I must admit, however, English sounds are comparatively easier, and Hungarians I know regard English as a "Lazy" language.
While this is certainly an interesting question, I would imagine (considering that this particular phoneme is shared by several other Indo-European languages) that the answer to such a question probably predates the development of Castilian Spanish. Because of this, it would probably be difficult to answer with any real authority. Understanding the evolution of a spoken language is often much trickier than that of a written language because there are no audio recordings of ancient languages from which to form judgments (in contrast to written languages which often provide at least a sketch of the way that the language may have been used). Therefore, any answer to such a question would likely be based mainly on conjecture or speculation.
I would assume that it started as a regional thing in areas if Spain and as the empire expanded it expanded its influence and way of speaking the language to other areas, and eventually it became a standard of the language. However that is just a wild guess.
Personally, I can't do it 
