Home
Q&A
Question about lo

Question about lo

1
vote

How come sometimes lo goes before the verb like no lo tengo

but other time I see it like quiero verlo

could you say quiero lo ver?

893 views
updated Apr 10, 2011
posted by ionisme
Pleaser remember that correct spelling and capitalization are mandatory on this site, welcome to the forum:) - 00494d19, Apr 10, 2011
Do you mean for english or for spanish? My Spanish is a work in progress. - ionisme, Apr 10, 2011

2 Answers

0
votes

In sentences with two verbs, there are only two options for where to place the direct object pronoun - either immediately before the conjugated verb attached directly to 2nd verb in the infinitive.

Not between or attached to the conjugated verb.

Hope that helps smile

updated Apr 10, 2011
posted by Kiwi-Girl
Thanks, is there a preference? I think for translating it seems to make more sense to put it at the end of the infinitive verb. - ionisme, Apr 10, 2011
I couldn't tell you generally but personally i like it tacked on the end of the infinitive :) - Kiwi-Girl, Apr 10, 2011
0
votes

The location of the object/reflexive pronoun is optional with verb infinitives and gerundios. It may precede the verb or be attached to it. With commands the location depends on whether the command is positive or negative.

No puedo hacerlo.

No lo puedo hacer.

Lo estoy ecribiendo.

Estoy escribiéndolo.

No me lo digas. (negative command ...must precede the verb)

Dímelo. (affirmative command...must follow (be attached) to the verb).

updated Apr 10, 2011
posted by 0074b507