Tú imperative form of haber

Question

I am not sure I really need an answer on this question, as clearly the answer for me is that I should just not try to use this form. But I did think the question might be of some interest to some of the more advanced members, so am presenting it anyway (If no one is interested, feel free to ignore this).

The question is what is the affirmative tú imperative form of haber.

The question arose when I tried to combine the common lists of irregular affirmative tú imperative forms with that of irregular present subjunctive forms (and hence irregular negative tú imperative forms), and then tried to figure out why haber is not on the list of irregular affirmative tú imperative (everyone seems to use the same list of 8)- I was not actually trying to put the form into real use.

My understanding of grammar is not good enough to know whether “Have that done (accomplished, etc.) by Monday” would be an example in English using “have” in the same sense as “haber”.

This site lists “he”; if one were to follow the regular rule (3rd person singular simple present indicative) it would be “ha”.

Here is a selection of opinions from elsewhere:

word reference :

habe

SpanishAbout.com :

Haber is not used in the imperative mood.

conjugation.com :

habe

verbix.com :

he; hé

Lingolex.com :

he

And from DRAE two contradictory entries:

DRAE:

From: Apéndice 1: Modelos de conjugación verbal

Las formas heredadas del latín son habe y habed, pero carecen totalmente de uso en la actualidad.

DRAE

And from the dictionary entry conjugation button: he

Here is the thread that we have that I could find: link text

And one from elsewhere that has some interesting comments on the subject: link text

Ultimately, I suppose, I should stick to learning what I should be learning instead of investigating obscure grammatical points.

This one is for Lazarus. I can't think in that "habe" making any sense in a sentence. In what context could that be used? :) - cogumela, Apr 4, 2011

Thanks, at least that tells me that "habe" would not work that way. - Stadt, Apr 4, 2011

Answer 1

The answer is quite simple, actually. The verb "haber" has mainly two uses: perfect forms (i.e. completed) and existence statements. Using the imperative to give orders about something that has already been completed makes no sense, and ordering things to exist does not seem very logical either, unless maybe you are good. In other words, why on earth would anyone want to use commands with this verb?

Anyway, morphologically, the modern spelling of the imperative is "he" (no accents, no matter what the 501 book says), which has not been used as such for centuries, so for practical purposes it does not exist.

Thanks- I could only even conceive it in the English command "Have that completed by ..." and am not sure whether that use of "have" translates to "haber". - Stadt, Apr 4, 2011

"unless maybe you are God" - samdie, Apr 4, 2011

Okay Lazarus but I do not have the most up to date version of this book so the appropriate corrections may have been made in more recent editions - FELIZ77, Apr 4, 2011

Answer 2

This is speculation (at best), but maybe "he" is the imperative of the impersonal haber, and "habe" is the imperative of the auxiliary?

Then again, who cares?

Yes, I don't think there really is much call for actually knowing this. Thanks. - Stadt, Apr 4, 2011

I think I tend to get too interested when different sites give different answers. - Stadt, Apr 4, 2011

I have the same "problem" ;) - Vikingo, Apr 4, 2011

Answer 3

In my book 501 Spanish verbs Christopher Kendris ( a Professsr of langauges) gives the imperative form of haber as hé in the familiar, positive form (or no hayas in the negative form)

I hope this helps

Thanks, the issue is I can find sources that list he, hé, habe, and "never used that way" and it is difficult to know which to trust, especially as DRAE which seems to be considered the best has 2 seperate opinions. - Stadt, Apr 4, 2011

If you want my opinion, do not trust that book. - lazarus1907, Apr 4, 2011

My simple approach is to just never use haber in the imperative- there does not seem to be any real reason I would need to. - Stadt, Apr 4, 2011

Answer 4

Haber as synomyn for apoderarse(to seize) may be used in the imperative. But for it most common use as an auxliary you wouldn't use it as imperative at all.

Thanks - Stadt, Apr 4, 2011