Imperfect Subjunctive #2

Question

When is the Imperfect Subjunctive #2 used?

Is that its formal designation? :-) - 0074b507, Apr 3, 2011

It is in our "Conjugations" reference. - ian-hill, Apr 3, 2011

Answer 1

What he means is that, it is much more common in formal writing and i guess at times poetry... the #1 is predominately used in speech and informal writing... also I believe the #2 is more common in peninsular spanish... sorry but I dont think we have an equivalent in english because we dont have two forms... if I say "si fuera el rey, comería carne rico cada día" or if I say "si fuese el rey... (the same as before)" they both translate as = if I were the king, I would eat good meat every day.

just a formality thing....

Answer 2

Here is a link to an article about a dispute among grammarians/linguists about that very thing.

link text

Answer 3

It's not always just used in poetry and such. I have been reading Una Serie de Catastróficas Desdichas (A Series of Unfortunate Events) (6 volumes) and the Spanish translator is from Spain. I have seen a few phrases where the se form of the past tense subjunctive was used. I would imagine certain phrases use it just because that is the way the context has been traditionally expressed.

Answer 4

Thanks Goyo

Poetry and Fancy stuff is a bit vague though.

Any idea what would be used in English?

Could you give me an example?

Answer 5

In poetry and fancy stuff.