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Does the spanish language have heteronyms?

Does the spanish language have heteronyms?

3
votes

Does the spanish language have heteronyms?

5124 views
updated Mar 25, 2011
posted by ezl25
There must be one spelling. English words such as bass (an instrument) and bass (a fish) are the same word diffrent meanings. - ezl25, Mar 25, 2011
Really good question. - rabbitwho, Mar 25, 2011

4 Answers

1
vote

Spanish usually uses an accent mark to distinguish between heteronyms, right? Like él and el and sé and se.

updated Mar 25, 2011
posted by rabbitwho
No, your examples are pronounced the same. See Qfreed's and Dogwood's replies. - Sabor, Mar 25, 2011
Sorry, I got confused between hetronyms and homonyms. :( - rabbitwho, Mar 25, 2011
1
vote

I've never come across heteronyms in Spanish. Dogwood is correct to think that Spanish being the phonetic language that it is, would not have the same phenomenon that we do in English. The extent of heteronyms in Spanish is the whole accent thing (el, él, tiro, tiró, etc), but as far as true heteronyms, there are none.

-Charlius-

updated Mar 25, 2011
posted by Charlius
1
vote

This is an interesting question. English has many, since the language does not depend on phonetics to arrive at acceptable pronunciations. Spanish, however, being a phonetic language, should not (in theory) have words that are spelled the same but pronounced differently.

I suppose a word could have been imported into Spanish from a non-phonetic language, but I would expect the Spanish equivalent to be handled with a phonetic pronunciation.

I'll be curious to watch this thread.

updated Mar 25, 2011
posted by 0066c384
1
vote

So that we needn't look it up:

het·er·o·nym

One of two or more words that have identical spellings but different meanings and pronunciations, such as row (a series of objects arranged in a line), pronounced (r), and row (a fight), pronounced (rou).

heteronym SD

Palabra que tiene la misma ortografía que otra, pero sonido y sentido diferentes,

¡Bienvenido al foro!

Welcome to the forum!

Do you consider a word with an accent mark and one without as a spelling change? [example un tiro (shot) and tiró (he knocked over]? Your question makes me wonder; the dictionaries with programs that pronounce the word, how do they handle heteronyms (wind/wind... short i, long i)?

updated Mar 25, 2011
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507