lo or le as the direct object pronoun for "him"?

Question

Some grammar sources say that "le" is the direct object pronoun for "him." Others say it is "lo". The explanation seems to be that in Spain, "le" is used, but in most of the Americas, "lo" is used. For example, a question might be: "¿Han visto a su padre?" In Spain the usual response would be, "No, pero van a verle hoy." In the U.S., and most of the Spanish speaking countries in the western hemispherem, the equivalent would be "No, pero van a verlo hoy." ¿Verdad o no?

If so, are you likely to be be misunderstood if you use "lo" in Spain and "le" in the western countries? Or just thought to be less than fluent?

Answer 1

Well, to tell you the truth: I don't think that rule of Spain and America is valid everytime. They are called leísmo and loísmo It's about the verb being transitive or intransitive.

I'd recommend you to read this: Leísmo, laísmo, loísmo on RAE.es

Thanks for providing the link. Very helpful. I wish English texts would be as clear and thorough. - Otravez, Mar 23, 2011

Answer 2

You will certainly be understood either way. I'll leave it to a native to describe what people will think of you.