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Why agua is masculine?

Why agua is masculine?

1
vote

Why does agua have masculine article when it ends in an a?

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updated Feb 27, 2012
posted by PrincessaS

6 Answers

1
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..........................El Agua not La Agua...................................

This is taken from our own Span¡shD!ct Reference page in re Definite Articles:

Exceptions

When a feminine and singular noun begins with a stressed á or ha, the masculine definite article is used instead to aid in pronunciation. When the same noun is plural, the regular feminine article is used.

Exceptional Definite Articles

Singular ? Plural

el águila ? las águilas

el alma ? las almas

el agua ? las aguas

el hambre ? las hambres

To see the entire Reference Article,

Look Here

updated Mar 13, 2011
posted by Moe
2
votes

"agua" is a feminine noun, but "el" is used to prevent two "a" sounds together. There are other feminine nouns beginning with an "a" that are handled in the same manner.

I recommend a quick search on the forum for "agua". There are many details in the discussions.

Welcome to the forum!

updated Mar 14, 2011
posted by 0066c384
2
votes

In case this seems strange to you, we do a very similar thing in English. Example: we eat an apple but we eat meat. We eat an orange but we eat a tomato. The only reason we use an instead of a is because it sound better. If you look in a grimmer book you will find the rule for this but if you are a native speaker of English you will never make this mistake. El agua sounds better to Spanish speaking people and that is that, you can look up the rule- it is very logical but the bottom line, that is how they say it.

updated Mar 13, 2011
posted by Hungerford
1
vote

It's all for pronounciation--the two a's would meld together othwerise. The word for harp (el arpa) is exactly the same way. It's much easier to say out loud--give it a try and see what I mean! smile

updated Mar 13, 2011
posted by liz_ellis
0
votes

There are excellent explanations of why agua is masculine. So now I ask two more questions.

  1. Why is it "la mano"? No problem here with pronunciation.
  2. Why do we have "va a hacer algo"? Here we have three "a" sounds in a row and no rule change here.
updated Feb 27, 2012
posted by gringojrf
0
votes

and why does un bebé (a baby) have no feminine? No hay una bebé!

updated Feb 27, 2012
posted by readytodictate
but the real answer to your question is ... It's a conspiracy by the Spaniards to make it hard for us Gringos to learn Spanish - readytodictate, Feb 27, 2012