From mandar to mandármelos?

Question

For my spanish homework, the example given was "Ivan no desea mandar los libros a mí." and it is supposed to be changed into "Ivan no desea mandármelos."

Does anyone know what kind of change is that? Is that a form of conjugation? I've tried looking up the word under conjugation but can't find anything about it. Translating it on spanishdict doesn't give an answer either.

Answer 1

me = a mí

los = los libros

It's not a special conjugation. They are just two pronouns attached at the end of the infinitive mandar. As you might notice, the formula is infinitive (mandar) + indirect object (me) + direct object (los). This construction is most effective when the objects have earlier been specified.

Answer 2

Because it follows the conjugated verb, it is the infinitive mandar with the object pronouns attached to the end:

desea mandármelos = me los desea mandar

The tilde needs to be added to keep the accent on the same syllable because these extra syllables added to the end are atonic, meaning that they are unaccented.

Answer 3

Hi, avoon,

You are going from saying:

"Ivan no desea mandar los libros a mí."

Ivan doesn't want to give the books to me.

to saying:

"Ivan no desea mandármelos."

Ivan doesn't want to give them to me.

you can add an indirect object "me" and a direct object "los" to the end of

an infinitive (or a command) in the exact order it was done, that is, indirect object first, then

direct object. And the accent is needed to let you know where to put emphasis

when you speak the word.