Vino (came) and vino (wine) in the same sentence/

Question

Is this grammatically correct (I am learning preterites of irregular verbs, FYI):

Usted vino por el vino. (You came for wine).

Seems redundant to me. But it is grammatically correct, right?

Welcome to the forum, :) - 00494d19, Mar 6, 2011

Answer 1

Why redundant? Don't we have similar things in English?

I saw the saw

I spoke about the spoke

I had to cast the cast

He photographs the photographs

I want to play in the play

I had to build a run so the rabbit could run

etc,etc,etc.

Oh so true. - pacofinkler, Mar 6, 2011

shut i i am learning english and is equal there is words that mean the same although is write of different form, and other that is write of different form and sound equal: example - Kevincamel, Sep 1, 2016

Buy bye by sre thse same sound - Kevincamel, Sep 1, 2016

Answer 2

Seems redundant to me. But it is grammatically correct, right?

Perfectly correct and not redundant, one is a verb the other one is a noun.

Answer 3

Check this answer please. Make sure to see if the questions havn't been answered yet.

Edit=questions is plural therefore haven't rather than hasn't or make question singular, either will work here.

Yes, it's correct. - Dakie, Mar 6, 2011