explain about direct and indirect
1
vote
This sentince: Mi amor me dió la rosa a mí.
Is it: My love gave a rose to me or My love gave me a rose to me.
I just want to know why do we have to use me and mí together, can't we get the same meaning without a mí in the end?
895 views
updated Mar 5, 2011
posted by alandar
Great question. When I was learning Spanish, I used to argue that this was redundant. In English it would be, as your second example illustrates. This shows a profound truth once again: that different languages are ... DIFFERENT! - hhmdirocco, Mar 5, 2011
As Qfreed explains below, the direct object is "la rosa," while "me" & "a mí" are parts of the indirect object. You may want to edit your title to make it clearer. - hhmdirocco, Mar 5, 2011
2 Answers
3
votes
by saying Mi amor me dió la rosa a mí you are adding emphasis. but without the a mí at the end it means the same thing.
updated Mar 5, 2011
posted by bailey009
1
vote
A meaningless comment:
Just in case you are confused (your title confuses me) both the me and the a mí are considered part of the indirect object (the i.o.p. and the clarifying/emphasizing phrase)
The i.o.p. is the necessary part of the i.o. while the clarifying phrase is optional.
One is NOT the i.o. while the other is the d.o. The d.o. in your example is la rosa.
updated Mar 5, 2011
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
