The difference between yama and llama
2
votes
What's the difference between yama and llama?
15431 views
updated Mar 2, 2011
edited by lagartijaverde
posted by Denito525
6 Answers
5
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One is a word, and the other is not. You figure out which. 
updated Feb 24, 2011
posted by hhmdirocco
Roccoooooo !!! Good to see you back !!! - patch, Feb 24, 2011
Thanks, Patch. Life is extremely busy, and I rarely get time to visit, but I had to look for something here and just couldn't help but answer a few. I guess I'm still addicted. - hhmdirocco, Feb 24, 2011
3
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there is an slang term called YEYISMO... some people cannot pronounce the LL and they do it with Y... so they have "yeyismo"
for example: pollo -- poyo
llama -- yama ...
updated Feb 24, 2011
posted by nelson_rafael
Welcome to the forum, :) - 00494d19, Feb 24, 2011
2
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In Spanish, "llama" is the third-person present tense of the verb "llamar", or "to call". I suppose "llama" could be pheonetically written as "yama".
In English, "llama" is a four-legged animal.
updated Feb 24, 2011
edited by 0066c384
posted by 0066c384
"Llama" is the same four-legged animal in Spanish, as well. "Llama" is also the word "flame," in addition to the third-person, present tense of the verb "llamar," as you have pointed out. - hhmdirocco, Feb 24, 2011
There are much fewer examples of this in Spanish than in English, where we have several distinct definitions for words like "right," "ball," "fall," "drag," "case," ad infinitum. - hhmdirocco, Feb 24, 2011
Thanks! I learn something new every day! :) - 0066c384, Feb 24, 2011
2
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Hi Nelson, this would be yeísmo
Read about it here, even though, in Spain in almost all areas the y is pronounced exactly the same as the ll, so don't worry about this.
updated Feb 24, 2011
posted by 00494d19
0
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one is spelt yama and one is spelt llama !
updated Mar 2, 2011
posted by joeboyd2010
"Spelt" is a variety of wheat, not the past tense or participle of "spell" (spelled). - hhmdirocco, Feb 24, 2011
It is one of the English verbs that can be either regular "spelled" or irregular "spelt" - ian-hill, Feb 25, 2011
Yes, Ian, you are correct. Thank you for pointing that out. I believe those irregular past tenses are for the most part archaic; do you agree? - hhmdirocco, Mar 2, 2011
0
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updated Feb 24, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
I think the question implied usage in Spanish. - hhmdirocco, Feb 24, 2011
