Q&AIt is seen as having been.

It is seen as having been.

vote

Sorry to ask so many questions.

I have the sentence, "his legacy is seen as having been, the signing of...."

The sentence structure for the first bit is what concerns me.

My attempt is "su legado es vista como habiendo sido... " is this correct?

Would such a sentence even make sence in Spanish.

1477 views

updated Feb 22, 2011

posted by El_Hitch

I'm sorry, the English is confusing me. Having been what? I don't get it. Is this some UK thing? - webdunce, Feb 21, 2011

su legado es vistO (since legado is masculine). - webdunce, Feb 21, 2011

Or, in light of usarenzo's response, perhaps you did not intend to put a comma after been? You mean that his legacy was the signing of whatever? I hope I'm not coming across wrong. The English really does have me puzzled. - webdunce, Feb 21, 2011

Or, maybe you mean his legacy has seen its day...it's over (having been). ??? - webdunce, Feb 21, 2011

It is about the perception of his legacy. His legacy is seen (by some) as having been... - El_Hitch, Feb 21, 2011

If thats confusing then maybe, "Many see his legacy as having been..." - El_Hitch, Feb 21, 2011

I understand the "is seen" part. I don't get the "having been" part. There's a comma after "been." If it had said his legacy is seen as having been great, a failure, purple, *something*...but it's just seen as "having been"...I don't get it. - webdunce, Feb 21, 2011

I'm not trying to be pesky. This has me puzzled to no end. And, I think it will affect how the Spanish should be, too. - webdunce, Feb 21, 2011

Or, maybe you mean his legacy is seen as having been the signing of whatever...in which case there should not be a comma after been. - webdunce, Feb 21, 2011

yes. His legacy is seen, as having been ... - El_Hitch, Feb 21, 2011

Why is there a comma after seen though? - gone, Feb 21, 2011