Home
Q&A
Te Amo/Te Gusto = Confused!

Te Amo/Te Gusto = Confused!

0
votes

For example, to say "I like you" in Spanish, you could say "Me gustas tu". What I don't understand is why "gustas" is used and not "gusto"... Or how about "Te amo". That means I love you , but "Te gusto" means you like ME, right? I just don't get it.

This question probably makes no sense, but hopefully someone can explain!

26451 views
updated Oct 5, 2017
posted by jever

5 Answers

1
vote

The difference between the two basically is that amar is a transitive verb while gustar is an intransitive verb.

Te amo. The te is a direct object pronoun.

Me gustas. The "me" is an indirect object pronoun.

If gustar were a transitive verb then you would use gusto to say I like xxxx. As an intransitive verb, however, gusto means "I am pleasing to xxxx."

updated Feb 17, 2011
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
Remarkably cryptic. - jeezzle, Feb 17, 2011
A cryptic topic. Why is gustar not a transitive verb and means I like? Someone needs to explain how and why the gustar like verbs came about. - 0074b507, Feb 17, 2011
I'm not sure if I get it, but here we use "Me gustas" and "Gusto de vos" interchangeably. - SundanceKid, Feb 17, 2011
1
vote

Because gustar does not mean like. It means to be pleasing. Me gustas = you are pleasing to me.

updated Oct 5, 2017
posted by jeezzle
And that answer teaches nothing about the class of gustar like verbs, so that you will recognize the pattern when you encounter them. - 0074b507, Feb 17, 2011
0
votes

Remember that Spanish & Portuguese come from Latin. Many languages of the Iberian peninsula have verbs that resemble each other. In Portuguese, "GOSTAR" is used this way normally -- "Eu gosto de voce" (I like you). Remember also that Brazil is a Portuguese-speaking country, and often influences (& is influenced by) neighboring Spanish-speaking countries. Argentina, for instance, uses this "vos" form that is now not used in Spain. I believe all this goes back to history, although I do not know the exact detail. The original (& correct) Spanish "te gusta" appears to function like the French "il me plait" (it pleases me) and I think the Italian(?), but the infinitive "gustar" looks a lot closer to Portuguese "gostar." Unless you expect to pick the additional "vos" form use (which I wouldn't recommend unless in a country using it often), just stick with knowing "te gusto" as "you like me" (i.e. "to you, I please") and "me gustas" as "you like me". I suspect the "gusta de" form is not standard across all Spn-speaking countries and uncertain if the Real Academia Española recognizes it.

updated Oct 5, 2017
posted by Mateus9377
Hi Mateus. Welcome to the forum. This is an old thread. I doubt they are still looking for answers. Feel free to open new threads if you want to contribute. - 00fac92a, Oct 5, 2017
0
votes

Te (you) amo (I love).

Me (me) gustas (you please). The verb Gustar is conjugated for the person doing the action of pleasing.

Me ves ....... You see me.

Me amas ..... You love me.

Me gustas ...... You please me.

updated Feb 17, 2011
posted by 005faa61
0
votes

Me gustas = Me gustas Tu = Gusto de vos = I like you

Gusta de mi = She/He like me

te gusto = you like me

te amo = I love you

gusta de vos = She/He likes you

Still confused?

updated Feb 17, 2011
posted by SundanceKid
The de xxx is interesting. Is that considered an object of the verb? - 0074b507, Feb 17, 2011
Can you also say De vos gusta? - 0074b507, Feb 17, 2011
It sounds weird, but you can say "¿De vos gusta?", it means "She\he like you?" that way express surprise or disbelief. - SundanceKid, Feb 17, 2011