"me either"
Is "yo tampoco" best translation?
4 Answers
This will work in some cases, but it depends on the context (and whether the pronoun is the subject or indirect object of the sentence). For example:
As Subject Pronoun
?Person 1: No quiero ir de compras I don't want to go shopping.
?Person 2: Yo tampoco me neither.
As Indirect Object Pronoun
?Person 1: No me gusta ir de compras I don't like going shopping (or "Shopping is not enjoyable to me").
?Person 2: A mí tampoco me either (or "to me either").
In the UK "me either" is/was? considered to be a grammatical error. Either x or y is positive suggesting choice. Neither nor is the opposite meaning both are rejected.
Phillipa Foot the philosopher has written on the "either or" question.
Seemingly the malapropism "Me either" has become commonplace in the 'States. Still, one mustn't be too pedantic, language changes all the time.
Here's Garth Brooks : link text This new link = video seems available to all regions, the first link was restricted. That man can drive a tele!
Oh yeah, "Me neither" = Yo tampoco
Me neither - it is a negative or Nor me.
In the UK "me either" is/was? considered to be a grammatical error. Either x or y is positive suggesting choice. Neither nor is the opposite meaning both are rejected.
To me, this would have to do more with situations where either/neither is considered to be part of a disjunctive correlative; however, in the expression "me either" (at least in the way that I am used to seeing it used) no such correlative occurs. Instead, it is a continuation of the previous statement which in this case is elided.
I suppose maybe it comes down to a question of viewpoint. For example, in the sentence "Shopping is not enjoyable to me," if one were to answer with the expression, "to me either" then what is occurring is an ellipses in which the first part of the original sentence has been omitted: (It's not enjoyable) *to me either** or *(nor is it enjoyable) to me either. ? to me either
From this viewpoint, if you were to use the word "neither," it would create a double negative (it's not enjoyable to me neither/nor to me neither).
Of course, it is also possible to look at the sentence from the viewpoint that the omission is more characteristic of a disjunctive pair: (It's not enjoyable to you and) neither (is it enjoyable) to me. ? to me neither
I suppose that this difference in viewpoint is what gives rise to the two different phrasings (in American English).