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To have or to take a beer

To have or to take a beer

5
votes

How could I say "Me tomé una cerveza el otro día"?

I took a beer the other day

I had a beer the other day

Thank you.

42195 views
updated Feb 7, 2011
posted by nila45
I just read this entire post and it underlines what amazing people/resources there are on this site. I am so amazed by the knowledge. (Good questions also take knowledge) Points for everyone!!!! - margaretbl, Feb 1, 2011

8 Answers

7
votes

The distinction in English between "take" a beer and "have" a beer is that "take" has the sense of llevar=to carry. That's why you have "takeaway" meals=meals you take home.

"Have" here is closer to consumir. To have a beer is to drink a beer. To have a takeaway is to eat a takeaway meal.

I took(removed) a beer from the fridge. I had (drank) a beer from the fridge

updated Feb 7, 2011
edited by lagartijaverde
posted by lagartijaverde
Really? - nila45, Feb 1, 2011
Yes, really. This is a good explanation. - KevinB, Feb 1, 2011
Nice clarification... - kerflop, Feb 1, 2011
6
votes

Then, this sentence would be correct "Danny usually has 8 or 9 beers on Saturdays" and this other incorrect "Danny usually takes 8 or 9 beers on Saturdays".

updated Feb 1, 2011
posted by nila45
Just a note, beer, as a noun, should be uncountable, you should use countable nouns here to say how much he drinks, e.g. cans, bottles, litres, pints etc. ;) - Gocika, Feb 1, 2011
Both are gramatically correct, but carry different meaning. Have here would mean drink, take - its original meaning... - Gocika, Feb 1, 2011
Beer as a noun can be countable or uncountable: "8 or 9 beers" is perfect: not only is it grammatically correct, it is what most people would say. - lorenzo9, Feb 1, 2011
Lorenzo, I agree: both are correct :) In fact most people would say how many beers they have had (countable) unless they were saying that someone had had too many in which case they might say He's had a few too many beers (collloq) - FELIZ77, Feb 1, 2011
http://funeasyenglish.com/american-english-grammar-non-countable-noun.htm - Gocika, Feb 1, 2011
My interpretation of the fact that we would all say 'I had ... beers' is that we are too lazy to say 'bottles of' or 'glasses of' etc, which of course A R E countable. - galsally, Feb 1, 2011
That link may or may not be correct, but it's certainly not the way people speak. Beer is definitely countable to the vast majority of English speakers. Wine is not, however, for some reason. - KevinB, Feb 1, 2011
Kevin, I think Wine isn't because it doesn't come in single serving sizes. If you said I had 5 wines with dinner it would seem that you had 5 bottles of wine would is a massive amount. - kerflop, Feb 1, 2011
Most people here in the U S drink wine by the glass, rather than by the bottle. But you still say, I had 2 glasses of wine, not 2 wines. - KevinB, Feb 1, 2011
5
votes

You would not say "I took a beer the other day". You could definitely say "I had a beer the other day". Another possibility is "I drank a beer the other day".

updated Feb 1, 2011
edited by pescador1
posted by pescador1
Yes, absolutely correct! :) - FELIZ77, Feb 1, 2011
4
votes

I think it just boils down to a question of usage, but here are my ideas on what has already been discussed.

When you use the verb "have" (in the context of eating and drinking), it usually implies the act of consuming some food or beverage (i.e. I had something to eat or drink). For example:

?I had a salad for lunch (I ate a salad for lunch).

?I had a couple of beers last night (I drank a couple of beers last night).

However, when you use the verb "take" it indicates the act of receiving some food or beverage. For example, when you tell a waiter or bartender that you will "take" something, the implication is that you are asking for them to "bring" or "give" you some particular food or drink item. When ordering food or beverages (that is when speaking of it before you have actually consumed it) there is some overlap in usage due to the fact that when you declare what you will "have" to drink/eat there is also an implied request for this person to bring you what you desire.

?I will have a beer, please (I will have a beer to drink, please bring me one).

?I will take a beer, please (I will take a beer from you, please bring me one).

I also think that using the word "have" rather than "take" also sounds less forceful (more passive), and possibly more polite, but both are pretty common and it probably just comes down more to usage.

Taking that into consideration, I think that it would also sound strange to use the past tense of "take" because when describing a meal in the past tense, one does not usually speak of what one "took" but what one actually ate or drank (i.e. "had") or "ordered" (again this may come down to the idea of force that could be applied to the verb "take," but I am not completely sure about this). It would, however, be possible to use the verb "partake" (but this often comes off sounding a bit too formal).

?I had a couple of beers last night. (I drank a couple of beers last night).

?I partook of a couple of beers last night. (I drank a couple of beers last night).

Aside from the ideas of drinking vs receiving and forcefulness vs passiveness, I think that the difference might actually have more to do with the stative or durative nature/aspect of the verb "have." For example, note the effect of asking the following question:

?What did you have for dinner last night?

?I had soup and salad.

Here, the idea expressed carries a durative aspect in that there is no defined endpoint. In other words, the act of eating/having a meal lasts through the entire meal and indicates that the action occurs for some unspecified duration of time. On the other hand, the verb "take" has a punctual aspect; that, is it does not indicate a durative event but instead, the action of "taking" occurs instantaneously (and simultaneously, in this context, with the action of "giving").

I think that it is probably this combination of both aspect (take ? punctual) and implied meaning (to have ? to consume) that makes the verb "to take" seem an inappropriate choice in certain contexts. Taking both of these factors into consideration also shows why either would be appropriate in the context of medication:

?Has he taken his medicine, yet?

?Has he had his medicine, yet?

In this case, the difference in aspect is not a point of emphasis. Instead, "took his medicine" seems to retain its punctual aspect but "had his medicine" focuses more on the idea of whether or not the medicine had in fact been consumed. Still, I think that "take medicine" is probably the more common idiom, probably due to the fact of this punctual aspect.

updated Feb 1, 2011
edited by Izanoni1
posted by Izanoni1
2
votes

The distinction in English between "take" a beer and "have" a beer is that "take" has the sense of llevar=to carry. That's why you have "takeaway" meals=meals you take home.

"Have" here is closer to consumir. To have a beer is to drink a beer. To have a takeaway is to eat a takeaway meal.

I took(removed) a beer from the fridge. I had (drank) a beer from the fridge

Then, what happens with this?

I take a pill

I have a pill

I think I have never heard "to have a pill". Can anyone explain this?

updated Feb 1, 2011
edited by nila45
posted by nila45
2
votes

Then, what happens with this? I take a pill I have a pill I think I have never heard "to have a pill". Can anyone explain this?

Normally you would say take a pill. It would be unusual to say have a pill, though it is sometimes said. Did you have your pills today? is less common than Did you take your pills today?, but it would be understood.

updated Feb 1, 2011
posted by KevinB
2
votes

Then, what happens with this? I take a pill I have a pill I think I have never heard "to have a pill". Can anyone explain this?

It's not carrying the idea of "consume" but the idea of taking treatment, medicine. "Take" also has the idea of aguantar as well, doing something that is necessary but doesn't entail pleasure. So you have these phrases like "You'll have to take it in your stride" "I can't take anymore" "You'll have to take it like a man". Here "take" is doing or tolerating something you don't really like.

None of these things are regular though there are always exceptions. For example if what I'm saying were regular you wouldn't have a phrase like "I had an injection". These tips are just guides, not written in stone.

updated Feb 1, 2011
posted by lagartijaverde
2
votes

Even though we say "take a pill" and even "take a drink" occasionally, if you say "take a beer," you will be asked "To where are you taking the beer." It doesn´t necessarily make any sense; that´s just the way it is.

updated Feb 1, 2011
posted by 005faa61