No tengo nada que perdonarte

Question

Why does it not conjugate after the que here? I don't have any reason to forgive you, because you have done nothing wrong? Is that right? Gracias.

Answer 1

No grammar will give you an answer, because it is all about common sense (the least common of all senses). Conjugated forms have a purpose, but in "nothing to give you", apart from the link between "nothing" and the rest, there is no perfective (or any other) meaning to it.

Your question is about philosophy and human evolution. There is no answer to that. To me, the real question is why "que" is used here instead of a normal preposition, but any question is equally valid.

And the reason why que is used is because Tener que means to have to. As you know, the meaning of Tener changes with the preposition. Tener a María. Tener de esclavo. Tener por necesidad. Tener en cuenta, etc. - gone, Jan 29, 2011

Answer 2

The conjugated verb is to have. This construction is parallel to the English one, where the second verb remains in the infinitive (to forgive).