Le dejaré que descanse
The only reason I can think for descansar to be subjunctive here is that its' a secondary clause, Maria told me typically they are subjunctive so better to just use subjunctive on secondary clauses, but I am trying to really learn when to use indicative in these clauses, it seems it would be indicative here, why subjunctive? Gracias.
6 Answers
If this sentence means "I'll leave you(?), have a rest!" Then it's like afowen says:
¡Le dejo! ¡Qué descanse! or ¡Te dejo! ¡Qué descanses! Your sentence doesn't have a verb-subject concordance (As Heidi says)
But if it means I'll let you have a rest., then it's:
Le voy a dejar que descanse. / Te voy a dejar que descanses.
or
Le dejo descansar. / Te dejo descansar.
Both these forms are used as far as I know.
Are you declaring (i.e. informing about something that you know or guess) to the other person that he is resting? No, and he won't be able to do that either until you let him. Therefore, it should be in subjunctive, since you are not declaring anything.
If you used indicative, the other person could jokingly answer: "¿Cómo puedes decir que descanso, si no me dejas decansar?", since the sentence would be closer to "I'll let you, since you rest", which of course makes no sense.
Is your sentence definitely not written 'Le dejaré, ¡que descanse!'?
Does it make sense to you why it would be subjunctive in the above example?
Must be a typo, jeezle,
le is he or she or whatever, descanses is tú...get that right first.
There may be a typo here. Possibilities that I can identify from the question:
- Te dejaré para que descanses (tú)
- Dejaré que descanses (tú)
- Le dejaré descansar (a él o ella)
- Te dejaré descansar (a ti)
- Le/Lo dejaré que descanse (a él o ella)
Dejar is an influential verb that can be used with the infinitive or subjunctive even though there are two clauses. I think it is more common with the infinitive. Te dejaré descansar.