subjunctive english sentence

Question

English subjunctive:

Is is correct to say

I took that garlic if she would bring more )subjunctive(

please only answer this if you know the subjunctive english rules really well

The sentence doesn't make sense. - ian-hill, Jan 28, 2011

Is it correct to say,"..."? Please, only answer this question if you know the rules of the subjunctive mood in English very well. :) - LiveUnsheathed, Jan 28, 2011

I know them but did not understand the sentence. - ian-hill, Jan 28, 2011

Answer 1

I took that garlic if she would bring more

As it stands, the sentence above is poorly formed.

In this type of sentence, when the subjunctive is necessary, the verb in the "if clause" would be the verb to carry the subjunctive. The result clause usually carries a modal auxiliary such as "would."

As the event described in your sentence is meant to describe a condition that is contrary to past fact, you would state it using the past perfect subjunctive:

I would have taken the garlic if she had brought more.

Here, the verb in the if clause, "had brought" is conjugated in the past perfect subjunctive and the verb in the result clause have taken is preceded by the modal auxiliary would.

Note it does not matter which order you place the clauses in. The if clause always carries the subjunctive:

If she had brought more, I would have taken the garlic.

If she had brought more garlic, I would have taken it.

In colloquial usage, you will also find that the if clause also carries a modal auxiliary rather than the subjunctive:

I would have taken the garlic if she would have brought more.

As you can see, this sentence differs from the first in that the if clause is not conjugated in the subjunctive but instead carries the modal auxiliary would.

Strictly speaking, I am not sure whether or not this particular construct is considered to be well-formed (possibly owing to the repetition of the modal auxiliary would); nonetheless, it would probably not be strange to encounter this particular type of construct (at least in spoken form).

I would also like to point out that if the event being described in the if clause is considered likely or possible then it would carry a verb in the indicative. For example:

I will take the garlic if she brings more.

Here, the verb in the if clause, "brings," is conjugated in the indicative and indicates the speaker's attitude towards the event as being likely or possible. Notice also, that the result clause no longer carries the modal auxiliary would but instead is conjugated in the simple future indicative.

By way of contrast, if the speaker's attitude toward such an event were that such an event was extremely unlikely to occur or impossible then an appropriate subjunctive verb form would be used:

I would take the garlic if she were to bring/brought more.

Notice here that either the future subjunctive, "were to bring," or the past subjunctive "brought," would be appropriate to use here.

Answer 2

The verb to be put into the subjunctive here is "to bring" and "to take" is in the conditional:

If she brought more garlic, I would take some.

If she were to bring more garlic, I would take some.

I would take some garlic if she brought some.

I would take some garlic if she were to bring some.

Answer 3

Please, dew, fill in your profile, we don't know your native language.

Yes. That would be helpful :) - Izanoni1, Jan 28, 2011

Answer 4

Do you mean 1) I would take the garlic if she will bring more. (I'm not going to take it until I know if she will bring more.)

2) I would take the garlic if she would bring more.(I'm not going to take it until I know if she might bring more.)

3) I will take the garlic if she will bring more. (I am willing to take it if she is willing to bring more.)

4) I will take the garlic if she would bring more. (I am willing to take it if she might bring more.)

The subjunctive is gradually disappearing in English. It is disappearing faster for some uses than for others. Very few people would distinguish between the meanings of the above sentences.

It is very much alive in English but not recognised as such because much of the time we use Modals. Spanish can't do this because it does not have Modals. - ian-hill, Jan 28, 2011

All the verbs that follow a modal are the infintive form but without the "to". - ian-hill, Jan 28, 2011

The verb that does / should change is the verb "to be" and all present tense 3rd person singular verbs (they lose the "s". - ian-hill, Jan 28, 2011

"I would take the garlic if she will bring more." This sentence is poorly formed. It might be better to say one of the following: "I would take the garlic if she were to bring more/I will take the garlic if she brings more" - Izanoni1, Jan 28, 2011

Answer 5

From Wikipedia: "In grammar, the subjunctive mood (abbreviated sjv or sbjv) is a verb mood typically used in subordinate clauses to express a wish, emotion, possibility, judgment, opinion, necessity, or action that has not yet occurred. It is sometimes referred to as the conjunctive mood, as it often follows a conjunction. The details of subjunctive use vary from language to language."

"I would take some garlic, if she were to bring more." "If she happens to bring more garlic, I would take some."

Both of these sentences would function well in that situation.

"If she happens to bring more..." is not conjugated in the subjunctive but instead carries an infinitive verb form. - Izanoni1, Jan 28, 2011