Subjunctive: Where did you hear that?

Question

So if someone says something to me that isn't true, but rather is just a rumor, can I say:

¿Dónde oiga eso?

and does it imply that I think they are making it up?

If it isn't true, but I think they may actually have heard it, should I say

¿Dónde oye eso?

Answer 1

It doesn't make a difference whether you use "oiga" or "oye" - both are incorrect.

In this context, the only valid options are "¿Dónde oyó / oíste / escuchaste eso?" or "¿Dónde / de quién ha(s) escuchado eso?"

It conveys exactly the same amount of disbelief as "Where did you hear that", which is the literal translation.

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I think this is more a case of making use of diplomatic language, than of tenses.

Cautious Belief:

In English: "Facinating! Did you read that in the news today?"

In Spanish: "¡Qué interesante! ¿Lo leíste en las noticias de hoy?"

Alternatively:

Utter Disbelief:

"Come now, where'd you hear that?" - "¡Oh, vamos! ¿Dónde oíste semejante cosa?"

Answer 2

¿Dónde oiga eso?

Unacceptable. Subjunctive is not about uncertainty, no matter how many times you hear that made up rule. Subjunctive is used in subordinate clauses (you need at least two verbs for that) when its content is not intended to be declared. In any case, one verb, no subjunctive (in polite requests and other expressions, the main verb is generally omitted)

I'm still figuring out what is and is not a declaration. - lorenzo9, Jan 27, 2011

Answer 3

In both cases, just use Preterito. It doesn't imply one way or the other without intonation or an extra word such as ¿Dónde diablos oíste eso?

Answer 4

I think there is something really simple that I am missing here.

Answer 5

Subjunctive is used in subordinate clauses (you need at least two verbs for that) when its content is not intended to be declared. In any case, one verb, no subjunctive (in polite requests and other expressions, the main verb is generally omitted)

So you are saying that sentences with only one verb (and no omitted verbs) are always declarations? And that "nondeclarations" are always restricted to subordinate clauses?

Say Pepe is coming to pay me money he owes me. He hasn't arrived yet and he hasn't paid me yet, so how can I declare either one?

Cuando Pepe llegue, me pague.

or does it have to be

Cuando Pepe llegue, me pagará.

Answer 6

How about ¿Cómo lo sabes?

My real goal here is to nail down what is and is not a declaration, rather than trying to avoid certain constructs. - lorenzo9, Jan 28, 2011