Preterit (simple past) article
In the reference article here, linked above, about midway down it says this:
There are several "somewhat irregular" verbs in the preterit tense. These are irregular in their stems, and follow the conjugation endings for -er and -ir verbs without tildes (even if it is an -ar verb).
I am having a hard time understanding that statement, as the endings are:
-e, -iste, -o, -imos, -isteis, -ieron
And thus to me, it seems that 4 of the tenses are in the regular -er and -ir endings, and the other two are in the -ar endings without the tildes. Am I missing something, or is the statement in the reference section wrong.
2 Answers
I think you are right Stadt, the article is either confusing or wrong. None of the Spanish textbooks I have read describe it that way. It is better to learn these irregular verb endings as a third set, which shares four endings with the regular -er/-ir verbs and has two (singular 1st and 3rd person) endings specific to it.
That is a confusing statement. It's wrong if you interpret it your way (the statement, not your interpretation).
I think of them as all using the same endings, regardless of whether they are -ar, -er, or -ir.