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subjuctive with que but not with cuando

subjuctive with que but not with cuando

2
votes

I get confused by the following structure:

No me gusta que fumes (subjuctive) No me gusta cuando fumas (indicative)

Both sentences contain a trigger for the subjuctive, namely (no) me gusta which is a way of expressing emotion. When this trigger is followed by que, you need to use the subjuctive, but when it is followed by cuando you need to use the indicative.

Can anyone tell me why it is that that cuando doesn't take the subjuctive in this structure?

thank you

4038 views
updated Jan 21, 2011
posted by ivonneivonne

4 Answers

3
votes

Because it is a habitual action that is already occurring and may continue into the future:

link

updated Jan 21, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
Hi Lonzenzo, - ivonneivonne, Jan 21, 2011
thanks for your answer. It seems you are reffering to the use of cuando as a trigger for the subjunctive and cuando will take the subjunctive when reffering to the future. In the above question I am wondering about (no) me gusta (emotion) with cuando - ivonneivonne, Jan 21, 2011
Glad to see you corrected the spelling of subjunctive. It is misspelled in your question. - 0074b507, Jan 21, 2011
2
votes

thanks for your answer. It seems you are reffering to the use of cuando as a trigger for the subjunctive and cuando will take the subjunctive when reffering to the future. In the above question I am wondering about (no) me gusta (emotion) with cuando

"Me gusta" usually does not trigger the subjunctive; it is usually followed by a noun phrase consisting of a noun or the infinitive of a verb, and it is usually a declaration rather than something that would make you think of the subjunctive. There are a lot of phrases ending in que (around 80) that trigger the use of the subjunctive, and "me gusta que" is one of them. So the issue does boil down to "when does a phrase starting with cuando use the subjunctive", that it happens to be preceded by "me gusta" isn't important.

updated Jan 21, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
1
vote

It is counterproductive to think in terms of "triggers" ("magic" words that automatically condition the syntax of what follows). The use of the subjunctive depends on the intention of the speaker (to declare or not) not on the exact form/word choice (although in many cases they are related). Consider the most consistent introductory word for the subjunctive, "ojalá". There's nothing "magic" about this word. It simply expresses a wish that something were the case. However, by implication, it is not the case (else it would be nonsense to express a desire that it were). Since it is not the case, you can't, reasonably, declare it (to be the case), though you might prefer that it were.

updated Jan 21, 2011
posted by samdie
1
vote

delete-thought I knew the answer, but on second thought....

thanks for your answer. It seems you are refering to the use of cuando as a trigger for the subjunctive and cuando will take the subjunctive when refering to the future. In the above question I am wondering about (no) me gusta (emotion) with cuando

No me gusta [.....]

So you are asking why one noun clause [que...] uses the subjunctive and why one noun clause [cuando...] uses the indictative if it is the "no me gusta (emotion)" that is triggering the subjunctive mood use in the 1st sentence?

¡Bienvenida al foro!

Welcome to the forum!

updated Jan 21, 2011
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507