Why 'se' used in front of some words?
Specifically, why is 'se' used in the following sentence: No se lo contaba a nadie.
5 Answers
The pronoun "se" is a indirect object pronoun "le", which always changes to "se" in front of any object pronoun ("lo", "la", "los", "las"), same as "an" in "an accident" always changes to "a" in "a hole": phonetic reasons.
Therefore, se venden oro y plata, although translated literally would mean "gold and silver sell themselves,"
I don't think one can reasonably say that that would be a "literal" translation. If one translates the English back into Spanish, one gets "El oro y la plata se venden a si mismos." and I sincerely doubt that any Spanish speaker would consider this sentence to be anything other than weird. The construction, in Spanish, is passive + se not reflexive. The pronoun "se" is almost always referred to as the "reflexive pronoun", despite the fact that it is used in many constructions that are not reflexive (in the traditional sense). For this reason, I think it would be much better to say, simply, "the pronoun 'se'" (without introducing misleading adjectival qualifiers).
I understand (and to a limited extent, sympathize) with the desire to lump various uses of "se" under a common denomination. However, my sympathy extends only to those cases that exhibit common behavior. The knee-jerk reaction to label all uses of "se" as reflexive (and then go on to explain why a particular use is not, in fact, reflexive or why it can't be translated with a reflexive construction) is counter-productive. Far better to say that some uses of se are reflexive but many are not.
I, for one, am much more comfortable with saying "The pronoun 'se' can be used in many ways (among them reflexive constructions)" than with saying "The reflexive pronoun 'se' can be used in many ways (some of which are reflexive)."
If we take your sentence apart and explain the function of each word and the order in which they occur, it may help. This use of "se" has nothing to do with a passive or accidental construction in this example although it is also used in those constructions. This will not be of much if any help in understanding those uses.
"contaba" is the verb and "lo" is the direct object - expressed as a direct object pronoun. "Lo" means "it" and that is all the info we have - we have no more information to clarify what "it" might be. Spanish grammar requires that unstressed direct object pronouns precede a conjugated verb. Therefore, your sentence has "lo contaba". "A nadie" is the indirect object expressed as a stressed pronoun (nadie is preceded with the personal "a" because it signifies a person, although not an identified one.) Grammar rules require that non-stressed indirect pronouns - which are "short-hand" indirect objects, also precede the verb and also precede the direct object pronoun. Indirect object pronouns are either "le" for singular, or "les" for plural. In this case, "le" is correct as the unstressed object pronoun for "a nadie." Using these rules, we would have "No le lo contaba a nadie." But, another rule, when "le" or "les" are combined with "lo" or "las" (placed together and thus pronounced in sequence) as they are here, "le or les" are changed to "se." It still means "le" (in this sentence) which is later more clearly identified (stressed) as "a nadie.". but is changed to avoid the "le lo" combination, probably for better phonics. Because it would be unclear as to whether "se" is to be translated as singular or plural (No se lo contaba) without further clarification, the stressed form is added after the verb. The sentence does not give us complete information about the subject. Because of the verb conjugation, it could be "I" or it could be "he" or "she". Otherwise, it means "(subject) didn't tell it to anyone." I think this is correct, but if not, your corrections will be appreciated and scoldings, if deserved, taken to heart.
Spanish does have a true passive voice corresponding to the English one: El coche fue vendido ("The car was sold") and el zapato fue perdido ("the shoe was lost") are two examples, but it isn't used nearly as much as in English. Much more common is use of the third-person reflexive verb form, which uses the pronoun se. (Don't confuse se with sé, which means "I know" or sometimes "you be" as a command.) Rather than saying that something is done to something, Spanish speakers have the object doing it to itself.
Therefore, se venden oro y plata, although translated literally would mean "gold and silver sell themselves," can be understood to mean "gold and silver are sold" or even "gold and silver for sale," neither of which specify who is doing the selling. Se sirve desayuno means "breakfast is served." And se alquila, which might be seen as a sign on a building or object, means simply "for rent."
Keep in mind that the function of such reflexive verb forms is to avoid stating who or what is performing the action, or simply to recognize that the performer of the action isn't important. And there are ways of doing that in English other than using the passive voice. As an example, look at the following sentence in Spanish:
Se dice que neverá. Literally, such a sentence would mean "it says itself that it will snow," which doesn't make a lot of sense. Using a passive construction, we might translate this sentence as "it is said that it will snow," which is perfectly understandable. But a more natural way of translating this sentence, at least in informal usage, would be "they say it will snow." "They" here doesn't refer to specific people.
Dear friend
"se" in espanish werbs make them reflexive and passive. it comes in infinitives, such as "llamarse". likewise is the verb "contarse". "me, te, se" are most used forms of such mode of verb.
