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Why is me mí in Spanish?

Why is me mí in Spanish?

1
vote

Why is me mí in Spanish question

1788 views
updated Jan 15, 2011
edited by culé
posted by looloo54
You should use the correct spelling, punctuation and capitalization on this site. It's a rule. - culé, Jan 15, 2011

5 Answers

4
votes

je2010 said

*"Me" is not "mí" in Spanish. In Spanish "me" is either a reflexive pronoun or object pronoun. but "mí" (with an accent over the letter 'i') is used instead of "yo= I " when it is comes after a preposition. **For **example*

me llamo... = I am called ...
me gusta ...= ... please me.
este libro es para mí = this book is for me.

The information presented in the first two examples strikes me as being not quite correct. In English, reflexive pronouns are of the form "myself, yourself, himself, etc." That would make a literal translation of the first example:

?Me llamo... ? I call myself...

In the second example, the pronoun used functions as the indirect object of the sentence. This would make the corresponding construction in English as follows:

?Me gusta ? It is pleasing to me/It pleases me

The following assertion also appears to be worded a bit ambiguously:

"Mí" (with an accent over the letter 'i') is used instead of "yo= I " when it is come placed after a preposition.

The statement seems to imply that "yo" and "a mí" share a similar grammatical relationship; however, this is not the case. In Spanish, the pronoun "yo" only appears in the nominative/subjective case, just like the pronoun "I" in English; however, in Spanish, the prepositional pronoun does not have a similar analog in English. That is, there is no morphologically distinctive form for prepositional pronouns used in English. In English, these pronouns share the same form as objective pronouns (in this case the analogous form would be "me" as in "to me," "for me," "by me," etc). For the above reasons, I think it might have been a tad bit more accurate to have phrased the sentence as "mí" is the first person singular form that is generally used when a pronoun follows a preposition (with the exception of the preposition "con" in which the special form "conmigo" is used).

updated Jan 16, 2011
edited by Izanoni1
posted by Izanoni1
4
votes

Why is me me in English?

The same reason.

Hi looloo, welcome to the forum. You should ask logical questions to get some answers...

updated Jan 15, 2011
posted by culé
It is pretty "logical: how come is different from English, the only "logical" language in the world? - lazarus1907, Jan 15, 2011
4
votes

Because it is the closest possible word in Spanish to the English pronunciation of "me", and the inventors of Spanish cleverly did that to sucker native speakers of modern English into thinking that learning Spanish would be easy. Pretty clever, if you ask me: Juan and María Hernandez deserve a pat on the back for that.

updated Jan 15, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
1
vote

helo friend

me is not mí in spanish. in espanish "me" is either a reflexive pronoune or object pronoune. but "mí" (with acento on the letter 'i') is instead of "yo= I ", when it is come after a proposition. examples

me llamo... = I am called ..., me gusta, ...= ... please me. but este libro es para mí = this book is for me.

updated Jan 15, 2011
posted by je2010
"helo"→ "hello"....other corrections offered below :) - Izanoni1, Jan 15, 2011
1
vote

Are you asking about etymology?

updated Jan 15, 2011
posted by Sabor