Conjugation complications (sigh)

Question

Hey everyone..

English is my second language, although I'm not uncomfortable with it anymore, but Spanish is just as confusing.... I asked this question a couple days ago, and some may remember it. I'll post it up again.

“Va a volver a las 9 de la noche.”

Why doesn't the verb volver conjugate??

-> Va a vuelve a las~ ???? Is this not right?? Why?

I read all your wonderful answers, but I'm still a bit confused. So, from what I understand, "ir+a" is a sort of.... metaphor (haha) and is always followed up by a infinitive form, right? It's kind of like a math equation where you plug it in, and that's that.

An infinitive... It's like the base form of the verb, right? the one that ends in -ar, -er, -ir. for example, leer, acostar (did a spell that right? I don't know...) or whatever.

So why does "a" come after the "ir" verb? Is it just a phrase that I have to memorize?

Please help.... I need it badly. Pretend you're talkind to a kindergardener or something.. I hate grammer(grammar!!), but I'm going to get this right this time!! So come and help me out here!! lol

grammar - 0074b507, Jan 10, 2011

Haha. thanks.. - Saphire, Jan 10, 2011

Answer 1

I read all your wonderful answers, but I'm still a bit confused. So, from what I understand, "ir+a" is a sort of.... metaphor (haha) and is always followed up by a infinitive form, right? It's kind of like a math equation where you plug it in, and that's that.

It is not just a maths equation. "Ir a" was originally used only to indicate motion, but because this motion was done in order to accomplish something, people started to connect the idea of "going to (a place)" with "going to (a place to do something", and then "going to do something". Why is it not conjugated? Because conjugated verbs indicate who does what, but there is no need to indicate this twice for the same person. "Voy a" indicates tense and person, while "volver" is just a mention for an action.

So if there's a list of verbs in a sentence, do I only have to do it for the first one? - Saphire, Jan 10, 2011

Does your explanation of the evolution of the use of going to count for its use in English as well? I'm supposing so. Do you know if the construction developed independently and/or in different times? Thanks, Alex - afowen, Jan 10, 2011

Answer 2

Compare it to:

'To be going to' in English

You follow that with the infinitive of the verb, it works the same in Spanish.

I am going to go to the pub - Voy a ir al pub

I am going to polish my head - Voy a pulir la cabeza

My head is going to shine - La cabeza va a brillar

Girls are going to buy me drinks - Las chicas me van a comprar tragos

Va a vuelve a las... translates as he is going to he comes back at..., which clearly makes no sense.

"Going to go to the pub"/"going to polish my head"/"head going to shine"/"girls going to buy me drinks" - fantastic! I love it! - nonombre, Jan 10, 2011

Would you buy drinks on the strength of a shiny head sported by a guy? Maybe I should just look for a nice shirt, or somethink... :-) - afowen, Jan 10, 2011

Hey I want some of that , I already have the shiny head. - ray76, Jan 10, 2011

Answer 3

Other periphrases so that you can recognize the paradigm.

ir+a+verb infinitive