lastimar & lastimarse?
0
votes
Se lastimó la mano.
He hurt his hand.
This example sentence is shown under lastimar and not lastimarse so is it reflexive or not reflexive. Use of se always throws me.
Gracias
4550 views
updated Jan 2, 2011
posted by foxluv
1 Answer
1
vote
You're over-analysing here. We don't normally use possessives with parts of the body, so "se" refers to the person who gets hurt (him/her in this case), "lastimó" is the verb, and "la mano" the part that suffered the impact. If you insist in the grammatical jargon, it is regarded by most grammarians as a reflexive construction.
updated Jan 2, 2011
edited by lazarus1907
posted by lazarus1907
Yes, I do insist on a correct grammatical usage, so gracias Lazaurs! - foxluv, Jan 2, 2011
