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Question

I was talking to my friend from México last night over a couple of drinks and he was talking about a girl from work he went out with a few times and he said " Ella se fue de mis manos". Of course I understand what he was saying but I would have said "Ella se fue de las manos" ten times out of ten. I have always learned to use the definite article with body parts and clothing, especially if the possessor is known. I was wondering if the could be something like a regional thing? Any insights would be greatly appreciated.

Ella *and* mis manos!!! In the same sentence!!! - webdunce, Dec 30, 2010

What does it mean? She is of the hands? She got out of hand? Thanks... - kerflop, Dec 30, 2010

Answer 1

Well, I'd said "se me fue de las manos" It seems that your Mexican friend is starting to speak different from us. (I'm a Mexican living in Mexico City)

Yeah, that is where he is from too, although he has been in the U.S for years. It's really interesting to see the Spanish language evolving here. - pescador1, Dec 30, 2010

Answer 2

Yeah, that is where he is from too, although he has been in the U.S for years.

I wonder if he has gradually adjusted his Spanish to be understood by locals who speak Spanglish (who might be expecting subject and possessive pronouns).