Does the yod create or hinder diphthongs?

Question

Also, what is a simple and concise definition of "yod"? I'm trying to figure out its effect on verbs in particular from the standpoint of their evolution from Latin. For example:

Tener Salir Volver

Answer 1

yod.

(De or. hebreo).

1. f. Fon. Sonido i semiconsonante agrupado con la consonante anterior; p. ej., en pie, o semivocal agrupado con la vocal precedente; p. ej., en reino.

2. f. Letra que, en algunas lenguas, lo representa.

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QUESTION: Why, then, do verbs tener and venir not have the diphthong –­ie-­ in the first person singular, i.e., tengo, vengo?

The /e/ in these forms should have diphthongized, but did not, because of an element in the suffix known as the "yod". This element had the effect of raising the more open /e/ to the more close type found in verbs like debo, debes, etc., thus impeding diphthongization, as follows:

TENEO > tenjo (containing open /e/ and yod [j]) > tenjo (containing close /e/ and yod).

VENEO > venjo (containing open /e/ and yod [j]) > venjo (containing close /e/ and yod).

The yod in the forms tenjo and venjo were then replaced by /g/ (by analogy with verbs like digo and hago), yielding tengo and vengo.

Since the other forms of these verbs did not have a yod in their suffix, the stem vowels either diphthongized or not, according to whether or not they were stressed, for example:

TENES > ténes > tienes But, TENEMUS > tenemos

VENIS > vénes > vienes But, VENIMUS > venimos

By the way, this is all Greek to me, so I'll refrain from answering your thread on verbs evolving from Latin.

¡Bienvenido al foro!

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