Help me with 'para con'
The NBLH Bible says this in Eph 1:7,8 En El tenemos redención mediante Su sangre, el perdón de nuestros pecados según las riquezas de Su gracia que ha hecho abundar para con nosotros
In English it is like this; In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace Wherein he hath abounded toward us
How does para con become toward? This can't be a literal translation, surely. Also, does para con 'work' in the same manner as para sí?
For example:
para con nosotros = "toward us" para sí = "to himself"
What kind of 'magic' is para working here? This is not "normal' talk for me, and it's probably absurdly simple, but I just don't understand it. I would appreciate your thoughts.
5 Answers
Jack,
This is a very good question. I am not an expert on this at all, but let me offer the passage as it reads in the Nuevo Versión International.
"En él tenemos la redención mediante su sangre, el perdón de nuestros pecados, conforme a las riquezas de la gracia que Dios nos dio en abundancia con todo sabiduría y entendimiento."
which (if I've typed it correctly) should translate directly to
"In him we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of our sins according to the riches of the grace that God gave us in abundance with all wisdom and understanding"
I'm offering this because it illustrates a principle that I have discovered in my own study.
New Testament translations are made from the original Greek texts, where some language rules and structure are different. At some points, the Greek text translates more directly into Spanish than English. The most notable example that comes to mind is in 1 John 1:9 where the original Greek text uses the progressive (I believe) tense to indicate a continual washing. The older English versions did not (and probably could not) handle that tense adequately, but it translates well into Spanish.
Here's what it is in Spanish
"Si confesamos nuestro pecados, Dios, que es fiel y justo, nos los perdonará y nos limpiará de toda maldad"
placing God's action in the future tense.
My point is this. Scholars have translated the New Testament from the original Greek text, not from English to Spanish. Therefore, there will be occasions where the two outputs may not agree. Part is with the translators. Part is with the language. We should not be surprised at variations like this.
I appreciate your question, and I hope that helps.
There also exists the rare usage, para con (demeanour “towards”, “against”, “with”, “unto” someone or something): Es muy generoso para con los necesitados, He is very generous towards/ with the needy". No tengo pruritos para con ellos, "I have nothing [against] them".
There also exists the rare usage
Well, if 'para con' is rarely used, I'll not bother using it too much. Thanks for the Wiki link!
dogwood wrote:
My point is this. Scholars have translated the Bible from the original Greek text, not from English to Spanish. Therefore, there will be occasions where the two outputs may not agree. Part is with the translators. Part is with the language. We should not be surprised at variations like this.
First, thanks so much for your response. I forget the "Greek to Spanish" and am instead trapped into the "English to Spanish" mode of thinking. Your insights and thoughtful response helped immensely.
para con =con = hacia=towards , it's righ but not very used
