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"¡bailemos!" or "¡vamos á bailar!", what's the difference?

"¡bailemos!" or "¡vamos á bailar!", what's the difference?

1
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"¡cantemos!" or "¡vamos á cantar!" "¡juguemos!" or "¡vamos á jugar!" etc...

What is the difference between the 1st person plural imperative, and "vamos á" + infinitive?

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updated Oct 26, 2010
edited by birdnut
posted by birdnut

2 Answers

1
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The imperative is ordering us to dance or sing or play in your examples. vamos a + infinitive means we are probably doing it of our own choice. By the way there is no accent on the "a".

updated Oct 26, 2010
edited by Eddy
posted by Eddy
1
vote

The difference is that the single word is the imperative conjugated verb form and "Vamos a...." is a phrase using the infinitive. They both have basically the same meaning, but in Mexico the Spaniards tend to use the imperative more and the Mexicans tend to use the phrase more, ie: "¡Bailemos, hombre!" "¡Bailemos, pues!" as opposed to "¡Vamos a bailar!"

updated Oct 26, 2010
edited by 005faa61
posted by 005faa61