subjunctive after "si"
Someone told me that you shouldn't use the present subjunctive after "si ' yet I've heard people say "no sé si sea". Is that correct. Usually if I hear something from a native speaker, it's correct.
9 Answers
The present subjunctive is NOT used after si (“if”)!
The subjunctive mood is not always used after si as your title seems to imply.
You might find this interesting 
Si should never be followed by the present subjunctive - but you will hear it
It is correct to say the specific expression "no sé si sea/sean". Whether it is specific to certain countries I cannot say, but it would probably be understood everywhere.
Once again, the subjunctive is used after "si" in this specific expression; it is not used with other verbs (no sé si vienen, no sé si lo saben, etc.)
no sé si sea lo correcto, pero se utiliza
¨no sé si sea necesario, pero es bueno llevar el ungüento¨
no sé si deba sugerir más ejemplos
Sorry, gfreed, but I've got to call you on your statement the present subjunctive isn't used after si,ever, because it is. I've heard it alot in Mexico and on Mexican telenovelas. My question is whether or not it's correct or is it kind of a Mexico only thing. Has anyone else out there noticed it? It's only after saber, I think. When I hear it it really jumps out at me as strange.
the subjunctive can be used after si, but its very rare in the present tense. it can be used in unlikely or 'contrary to fact' situations, so when you start with 'no sé...' i think it is the negative aspect that puts it in the subjunctive. i don't know if it's grammatically correct, but depending on what country you are in i think people will be very relaxed about it!
I hear the pres subj after no se si but I'll never use it because the grammar books say not to. As a non-native speaker, I always have to be on the subjunctive allert when I'm speaking because it's really different than English so it doesn't come naturally. I screw it up often but I keep on trying. Thanks for all your advise!
TNX Mountaingirl. I think that it's only a saber-ser specific usage
in the present subj, It's saber followed by ser, right? So therefore no sé si vengan is a no no. I know that no sé si sea is used and what is used is almost always right. However, in Mexico you hear "ándale" , córrele, and chéquale, and those aren't technically right. Do you agree?
I never said that the subjunctive is always used after si. It obviously isn't.
