Definite/indefinite articles and food

Question

What is the rule for definite articles and food. I notice you can say "come fresa?" without the definite article, but "como una naranja" with indefinite. Do you always leave definite out or only with food or certain verbs?

I have deleted your other post and corrected this one. - Eddy, Oct 9, 2010

And the title - KevinB, Oct 9, 2010

Answer 1

Odd. I just answered a question that instantly disappeared. I think you mean "fresa".

Come fresa sounds weird to me - He eats strawberry. Spanish uses definite articles a lot more than English.

Come la fresa = He eats the strawberry
Come las fresas = He eats the strawberries, or He eats strawberries
Come una fresa = He eats a strawberry

"Come fresa" sounds weird at first sight. Maybe there is a context where it is fine, but initially I'd say it is weird. - lazarus1907, Oct 9, 2010

Answer 2

The rules with articles has to do with definiteness and syntactic function, but not with food.

Answer 3

"fresca" is not a thing you can eat like a "naranja"

It is the same as the difference in English between "eating vegetarian" and "eating a vegetable". . .both languages have countable and uncountable nouns as well as adjectives.

She meant "fresa" not "fresca" - Eddy, Oct 9, 2010

Answer 4

"Do you eat strawberries?"

"I ate an orange."

It is the same as in English.

Not quite. Do you eat strawberries? = ¿Comes las fresas? = Do you eat (the) strawberries. - KevinB, Oct 9, 2010

That's not what they say here. - lorenzo9, Oct 9, 2010