la mayoría tiene o tienen?

Question

in English, the majority is ¨is¨ singular even though the definition implies more than one,,,does the same thing happen in Spanish?,,,Can you say las mayorías if you are referring to more than one majority, as in for example the U.S. government, where the party is trying to have 2 majorities (one in the House and one in the Senate).,,,gracias,,,besos

Answer 1

Tiene.

La mayoría is a singular word, so it takes a singular verb as you rightly say.

Las mayorías is perfectly fine for referring to more than one majority, e.g. in the U.S. government etc.

Answer 2

La mayoría is a singular word, so it takes a singular verb as you rightly say

Although many people use incorrectly the plural form with word that describe a part of a whole (la mayoría han dicho que sí, la mayor parte han ido, la mitad son tontos...)