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Indirect pronoun?

Indirect pronoun?

2
votes

Why exactly is "le" used in the following sentence?

Ella está enojada porque el perro le está comiendo el zapato.

Thanks

1498 views
updated Sep 25, 2010
posted by smil210

2 Answers

0
votes

"The dog is eating the shoe" instead of "her shoe".

Do not, however, conclude that 'le' is an all-purpose translation of 'her'. A somewhat more roundabout explanation would be that "she" is the one affected by the dog's eating the shoe (from which we can deduce that it's her shoe).

Lazarus, of course, knows this but, no doubt wanted to spare you the tiresome details (whereas I'm big on tiresome details).

updated Sep 25, 2010
posted by samdie
You're right! I was just trying to make it as simple as possible. If I went into details... well, you know me. - lazarus1907, Sep 25, 2010
Yes, we know both of you - both wonderful!! - and, indeed, so are those details:-) - Janice, Sep 25, 2010
0
votes

Because without that "le" you wouldn't know whose shoe the dog is eating. The sentence would be "The dog is eating the shoe" instead of "her shoe".

updated Sep 25, 2010
edited by lazarus1907
posted by lazarus1907
Shouldn't this be her shoe. - Eddy, Sep 25, 2010
Yes, but I forgot the gender. - lazarus1907, Sep 25, 2010