Why is "los" not used in this statement?

Question

Why is "las" not used in this statement?......"Se venden joyas en esa tienda"..... Joyas is plural. Joya (jewel}...los joyas (jewelry).

Answer 1

because A. joyas is a feminine noun .

B. joyas in this case is not defined (there are not some jewels in particular), so you don´t use the definite article.

I meant Las - root1, Sep 24, 2010

Answer 2

It is not used for the same reason you would not use it in English. You'll see it better if I use "the jewels" instead of "jewelry":

The jewels are sold in that shop (The jewels? What jewels?)

"the jewelry" would be quite odd, as well, in such a sentenc for the same reason. - samdie, Sep 24, 2010

Indeed. The point is, no native English speaker would use a definite article here, so I don't understand why asking such a question. My guess is that they think that "las joyas" = "jewelry", and they are doing a direct translation. - lazarus1907, Sep 24, 2010

Answer 3

It would be "las" if it were used but I don't know why the plural article isn't used.

Because you wouldn't use it in English? - lazarus1907, Sep 24, 2010