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Lesson 1.4 Pronouns?

Lesson 1.4 Pronouns?

1
vote

I just watched Lesson 1.4, and I need to know why you don't give the pronoun when saying something like "Bebe leche." Why don't you say "Ella bebe leche?", instead?

2400 views
updated Sep 22, 2010
posted by melton1995
If we know "who" drinks milk we don't need to be told. If not then we could use the pronoun. - ian-hill, Sep 21, 2010
OK. - melton1995, Sep 21, 2010

7 Answers

3
votes

They include the pronouns, he, she, etc when we do not know exactly who the speaker is talking about. For example if someone wants to say to somebody else, 'she drinks milk', and the other person does not know who you are speaking of, you would say 'ella bebe leche'. It's like when we read a story, we may read Sarah said first so we know who is speaking, then later it will say she, because we already know Sarah was speaking. In Spanish, they omit she/he/they etc, because the verb shows it - I (yo) drink would be bebo. Because adding -o to the end of the stem beb, we then know that it was I speaking.

updated Sep 22, 2010
posted by lauraalbury2010
2
votes

If we know "who" drinks milk we don't need to be told.

If not then we could use a pronoun to distinguish between him and her for example.

updated Oct 11, 2010
posted by ian-hill
1
vote

It really is rather interesting that "bebe" means more than just drink. It can mean usted or you drink, he drinks, or she drinks. In English we use all those words; but the Spanish language just uses one word "bebe". The different verbs will come easier the more you study and the more you use them in everyday speech.

updated Oct 11, 2010
posted by bandit51jd
1
vote

This is one of those questions that doesn't have a logical answer. That's just the way they say it. Most of the time the subjuect pronoun is omitted in Spanish. It is used occasionally if clarification is needed to avoid confusion, but usually it's just left out.

updated Sep 21, 2010
posted by KevinB
0
votes

Can i just make the point that in songs they very often do include pronouns, even when it is obvious who the verb is directed to, which leads me to ask, is it really so wrong?

For example from one i heard very recently

dices blanco, yo digo negro dices voy, yo digo vengo

I know that the pronouns are included to allow the rhyme, but still, if its incorrect why is it so often used by singers who dont neccesarily see it cool to butcher a langauge.

updated Sep 22, 2010
edited by El_Hitch
posted by El_Hitch
I think that's to emphasize who is talking, and the contrast. Songs also add them to adjust the meter. It's not wrong, it's just not done so much in everyday speech. - KevinB, Sep 22, 2010
I see. - El_Hitch, Sep 22, 2010
0
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Bebé = Baby

Bebé leche = baby milk

Ella bebé leche = her baby milk

updated Sep 22, 2010
posted by princessjane
Melton was asking about bebe without the tilde: Why bebe leche instead of ella bebe leche. She drinks. - KevinB, Sep 21, 2010
Right. Not "baby", but the word for "drink" - melton1995, Sep 22, 2010
0
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OK. That helps. Thanks! smile

updated Sep 22, 2010
posted by melton1995