difference beween pronunciation

Question

What is the difference beween pronunciations for "porque" and "por qué"??

Answer 1

The word "por" pronounced alone is "atonic", ie. it has a baseline frequency and volume. The word "qué" is tonic, so the its fundamental harmonic is raised above the rest, the volume is increased (approximately 1 dB lower) and the length of the syllable is increased. The word "porque" is exactly the other way around: the "por" part of it has a raised pitch fundamental frequency and it is pronounced louder.

Although there could be variations in the intensity of the tonic syllables, the fundamental frequency is almost always raised, so essentially, they sound differently, no matter how. A native can discriminate them easily and effortlessly, and a spectrograph reveals immediately the difference.

Put it simple:

porque -> PORque

por qué -> por QUÉ

The difference is crucial. I take it that many Spanish learners have never been told about stress and intonation.

Answer 2

"Porque" takes a stress on the first syllable (por). "Por qué" has a slight added stress on the second word (que).

I have a hard time keeping straight the difference between "porque" and "porqué". The second of these two sounds exactly like "por qué". With the tilde, it is a noun meaning "cause" or "reason". Without the tilde it's a conjunction, meaning "because" or "since." There is a distinct difference in pronunciation.

you're right in saying that *in theory* "porque" is stressed in the first syllable, but when you pronounce it there really isn't any stress in *por* - bill1111, Sep 15, 2010

It depends on what you call stress, because this word refers to increase in frequency, or intensity or length (or some of them, or all at the same time). Phonologically you can see the difference if you use Forurier analysis. There is a stress there. - lazarus1907, Sep 15, 2010

I didn't say "in theory". I have heard native speakers (several--in Guatemala) put an increased intensity on the first syllable of "porque". - CalvoViejo, Sep 15, 2010

Answer 3

Lazarus said:

The word "qué" is tonic, so the its fundamental harmonic is raised above the rest, the volume is increased (approximately 1 dB lower) and the length of the syllable is increased.

Being a musician, this is fascinating to me. I am used to thinking about the concepts of harmonic, tonic, atonic, decibels, etc. in relation to music theory, but I had never considered it in relation to language.

Is there actual science which studies this in depth? Are you estimating in your own opinion about the frequency of the actual harmonic of "qué" and/or its dB level, or is this an actual study in and of itself?

It is a fascinating concept which will encourage me to look at the sounds of words in a different way.

It is not my theory. This is studied in phonology in many ways, but a simple phonogram shows the harmonics and the intensity. Some of my books have frequencies and intensities analyzed in detail. - lazarus1907, Sep 15, 2010

Answer 4

There really is no difference in pronunciation. However, the second-- "¿por qué?"/"why?" is a question so when someone says this, their voice will naturally go up at the end.

I bet you my house I can tell one apart from the other if I hear a native saying one of them. - lazarus1907, Sep 15, 2010

I'm sure you can!!! Interesting explanation below. - Nicole-B, Sep 15, 2010

Answer 5

"Porque" is pronounced without stressing any of the two syllables, whereas "por qué" is pronounced exactly as "porqué", one word with the stress in qué

Actually, "por" is pronounced almost unstressed, while "qué" is pronounced with a clear stress. - lazarus1907, Sep 15, 2010