Passive se and the definite article
Here are a few sample sentences from my lesson book: (question to follow)
a. The bills are paid on Mondays. Se pagan las cuentas los lunes.
b. Tacos are sold in this restaurant. Se venden tacos en este restaurante.
c. Cars are produced in Detroit. Se producen coches en Detroit.
d. Museums are closed on Mondays. Se cierran los museos los lunes.
e. Friends are invited. Se invita a los amigos.
Question 1: Why is the definite article 'los' used in sentences 'd' & 'e' and not in the others when 'the' is not included the English version as it is in sentence 'a'.
Question 2: In sentence 'e', why is it 'invita' and not 'invitan'?
Question 3: Using sentence 'd' as an example, can it also be written:
Los museos están cerrados los lunes. ?
Many thanks!
4 Answers
Question 2: In sentence 'e', why is it 'invita' and not 'invitan'?
Because this is an impersonal construction (or impersonal 'se'), which means that the verb must always be in 3rd person singular, always! All the other examples were not referring to people, so their construction was passive reflexive, and "las cuentas", "tacos",... were the subjects of the sentences, and therefore, they agree with the verb in number. In the impersonal sentence, "a los amigos" is not a subject, but a direct object, so there is no agreement between this and the verb. In Spanish the subject cannot be introduced with a preposition (eg. "a").
Question 1: I would use the definite article in all these sentences.
Question 2: Because it is just one entity doing the inviting (a los amigos). However, it can also be "Los amigos están invitados." No longer passive voice.
Question 3: Yes, but it´s no longer passive voice.
UGH. Honestly, I don't get the difference. To me, they say the same thing
On the semantic level, yes, the say/mean pretty much the same thing. However, they express the idea in slightly different ways. Most ideas can be expressed in a variety of ways (in most languages). Sometimes there are subtle differences in meaning (nuance). Sometimes the speaker can choose a particular expression for variety (perhaps to avoid repeating a recently used construction). Regional preferences can also come into play.
The world would be a poorer place if everyone expressed the same ideas in the same way (there just aren't that many original ideas to go around).
UGH. Honestly, I don't get the difference. To me, they say the same thing
It is a subtle difference, but there is one.
The past participle (perfect participle, etc.) serves several different functions in English or Spanish. One is to form the passive voice, one is to function as an adjective, one is to form the perfect tenses.
In
Los amigos fueron invitados. (invitados=past participle in forming passive voice)
In
Los amigos están invitados (invitados is an adjective).
In
Los amigos han invitado a Juan a la fiesta. (invitado is the past participle in forming past perfect tense.)
Similarly the present particle in English also has several functions. It serves as a gerund or an adjective or a present participle in progressive tense. It can also modify verbs or clauses in sentences.
Shopping is a pleasant pastime. (gerund)
Tommy is shopping at the mall. (active voice-present progressive tense formed by to be+present participle)
Her shopping skills were extraordinary. She never missed an opportunity to save money. (shopping as adjective)
Broadly speaking, the project was successful (present participle as modifier of sentence/clause)
So the difference between using the past participle in each of the different constructions is which part of speech that it is functioning as: part of passive voice, as an adjective, as part of the perfect tense. The word may have the same morphology (invitado) in all 3 uses, but it is being used in 3 different ways.
