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Ve vs Vayas/ Vaya

Ve vs Vayas/ Vaya

1
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I have come across the word ve a few times being translated as "go", as in a command "go!".

One example is : "ve y buscate una tonta"

I hence conclude that in these instances ve must come from "ir",. If it is a command then it should therefore be the subjunctive for "ir" no? But i cant find the word "ve" anywhere in the verb conjugation table for ir. I assumed it would perhaps be the subjunctive for "ir" tu form, but the subjunctive for ir tu form is "vayas"

Is ve another way of saying vayas or have i got this completely wrong? if so what does ve mean and why isnt it in the table conjugation table for ir.

PS once again, i am not reffering to ve when it is the el/ ella/ usted form of ver, but when it means "go!" as in the above sentence

Gracias

16899 views
updated Sep 6, 2010
posted by El_Hitch

4 Answers

1
vote

Hey ,I think you are a little bit confused. smile Because ve is not a conjugated form of the verb ver it's the imperative form of the verb ir so; "¡Ve y buscate una tonta!" means Go and find yourself a stupid! , on the other hand , vaya/vayas is the subjunctive form of the verb ir. Also, you can use it when you give negative orders.

"¡No te vayas!" : Don't go!

or as subjunctive :

"No quiero que mi novio se vaya a Holanda..." : I don't want my boyfriend to go to Holland...

I hope this helps you smile

Edit:

Imperative means to give orders, it's not another tense but it has its own conjugation.. Yes , you can use subjunctibe to give orders but it's more formal. So generally, "el imperativo" is used to give positive orders.. smile

updated Sep 6, 2010
edited by culé
posted by culé
2
votes

Thanks for that. I knew Ve y buscate una tonta!" means Go and find yourself a stupid! but was confused as to why Ve was used because i didnt see it in the conjugation tables.

What is this "imperative tense"? God not another tense confused I thought the subjunctive tense was used to give commands. Does this imperative tense do the same?

updated Jan 13, 2016
posted by El_Hitch
I edited my post ;) - culé, Sep 6, 2010
1
vote

Usually the subjunctive form of a verb is used as the imperative, but not always. In several cases the 2nd person familiar singular positive imperative is irregular. This is one of those cases. As dugu3b said, ve does come from ir, and it is the 2nd person familiar singular positive imperative. You use the 2nd person subjunctive, vayas, as the negative imperative:

¡Ve! = Go!
¡No vayas! = Don't go!

This is covered in lessons 2.12 and 2.13.

updated Sep 6, 2010
edited by KevinB
posted by KevinB
0
votes

Conjugation table for "ir", lower right hand corner in the box labeled "imperative". Formal commands (usted/uestedes) employ the subjunctive form (as do informal negative commands [prohibitions]). Positive informal commands (tú/vosotros) do not use the subjunctive.

updated Sep 6, 2010
posted by samdie