Juan ses las da?

Question

I have a small problem with direct and indirect object pronouns. If we have a sentence : Juan da unos aretes a ellas will the aforementioned sentence: "Juan ses los da " be correctly?

Thanks very much for answering( and sorry for my English abbilities )

Just for correctness abilities is spelled with just one ´l - MaureenPeters, Aug 24, 2010

Answer 1

I'm sure it is "Juan se los da".

se --> because it refers to "ellas", 3rd plural

los --> because it refes to "los aretes", plural, masculine

da --> because the subject is Juan, 3rd singular

"Ses" doesn't exist, it's "se" both in the 3rd singular and 3rd plural person.

Answer 2

When I learned about personal pronouns in spanish it was emphasised that the indirect object pronouns are always positioned before the direct object pronoun.

Also when two 3rd person object pronouns are combined the 1st (i.e the indirect object pronoun) becomes ´se´

• Simply put you cannot have 2 object pronouns together in a sentence that begin with ´l´
• le +la/lo/los/las = se la/lo/los/las
• les +la/lo/los/las = sela/lo/los/las

I do hope that this has not confused the already correct answers given above.

Yep. The reason for switching to se is because le lo, les las, etc. are hard to say and sound funny. - KevinB, Aug 24, 2010

Good explanation - lazarus1907, Aug 24, 2010

Answer 3

I've just learned this lesson and I think it should be "Juan se los da"

Answer 4

In the original sentence, shouldn't it read: "Juan les da unos aretes a ellas"