"give it to me"

Question

I have learnt that "give it to me" can be translated to Spanish in several ways, according to our translation machine: 1) dámelo; 2) delo a mí and 3) démelo. Then I checked the conjugation of "dar" to see where all these forms of the verb came from. So I found out that this verb has several imperative forms, such as dá for tú, and dé for él or usted, among others. But what about the imperative form under 2) delo a mí? Is there a de as in delo a mí as well as a dé as in démelo? Reverso gives only dé, but no de, as it also gives da, but no dá, as under 1) dámelo. And another question about this somewhat troublesome "give it to me": all the versions the translation machine produced contain the neuter article "lo", which is perfectly understandable. My question is, is "lo" changed to "la" when the "it" in the English "give it to me" refers to a feminine noun?

Please help me understand this. My appreciation to all the help I can get from you. Thank you.

Answer 1

I have never heard of "Delo a mí" and I believe it's incorrect because we are required to attach the direct object onto the end of the command forms.

So, I would chose "Dámelo" as the correct construction for "Give it to me."

If the object is a feminine one, it is "Dámela." (La bolsa, por ejemplo).

Thank you for your explanation. As for "delo a mi", if you feed "give it to me" into the translation machine, you will be given this translation, as well, as mentioned in my post. Appreciate your help :) - 00494ed7, Aug 8, 2010