Pasar verb question again
Hi,
I asked about this a few days ago and didn't really get a response. On the spanishdict entry for pasar, it says (#9) that pasarlo bien means "to enjoy oneself, to have a good time". I don't think I've seen that notation before (with the do pronoun attached to the verb) - does this mean when the verb is conjugated, the "lo" is moved in front of the conjugated verb: "(yo) lo paso bien"?
Also, if you go down in the same entry to number 11 under the pronomial verb heading, it says: "pasárselo bien/mal -> to have a good/bad time" - the exact same definition, but this time adding an io pronoun. So is there any difference in meaning between these two, and if not, can the construction be used with or without the indirect object pronoun with the same meaning?
In brief, to say "I'm enjoying myself", would one say "Me lo paso bien", "Lo paso bien", "Estoy pasandomelo bien", "Estoy pasandolo bien"...or none of the above?
Thanks
2 Answers
Here's a few examples which may help
¡Pásala bien! (Have a good time!)
¿Cómo lo pasaste/Lo pasaste bien? (Did you have a good time?)
Vamos a pasarla bien esta noche. (Lets all have a good time tonight.)
Sé que nos lo pasaremos muy bien. (I know that we're going to have a good time!)
Disfrutar or sentir might be a good verbs to use as well.
- Siento feliz y contento.
- Estoy disfrutando la noche, restaurante, y compañia.
- Disfruto mucho la fiesta, gracias por invitarme. Eres un anfitrión muy amable.
When using "pasar" it is thought that you are speaking of a situation, event, or period of time (such as a the events of the evening that Maria-Clair speaks of in her examples). In order to use "lo/la" you would have to have already spoken of the event/party/situation in order for the listener to know what you are talking about (not just some random "it"!)
Also, you probably would not say I am enjoying MYSELF...lest people get the wrong idea unless that IS your intention.