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3
votes

What is the plural form of peanut? (usando maní)

1989 views
updated Jul 29, 2010
posted by crockraus

5 Answers

5
votes

I'm not sure, but I don't think the tilde changes the basic rule that you just add an "s" to the end of singular noun that ends with a vowel. Maní => manís

I just checked my professional dictionary. It translates "manís" as "plural of peanut". It also translates "maníes" the same way. I guess you can use either and be understood.

updated Jul 28, 2010
edited by CalvoViejo
posted by CalvoViejo
1
vote

maníes or manises - or you could just say los cacahuetes!

updated Jul 29, 2010
edited by margaretbl
posted by margaretbl
Cacahuetes con chile... mmmmmmmm - kerflop, Jul 28, 2010
mmmm, y cerveza - margaretbl, Jul 28, 2010
o margarita.... mmmmm - kerflop, Jul 28, 2010
en una galleta de chocolate mmmm - Kiwi-Girl, Jul 28, 2010
cachuetes con wasabi. :D - galsally, Jul 29, 2010
1
vote

Well, the Castillian Spanish equivalent would be los cacahuetes

...and I think the culinary form maní would just be manís

(This was my first attempt I only changed it because Margaret's answer in this thread looked more credible than mine lol )

updated Jul 28, 2010
edited by FELIZ77
posted by FELIZ77
what is castillian spanish? - wojo, Jul 28, 2010
Castillian Spanish is the Spanish spoken in Madrid and most parts of Spain - FELIZ77, Jul 28, 2010
1
vote

One example of the plural of peanuts is - los manises

updated Jul 28, 2010
posted by bandit51jd
0
votes

My vote is for maníes.

And this thread here spoke about the same question:

http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/131965/is-man-ever-used-in-the-plural-like-cacahuetes

smile

updated Jul 28, 2010
posted by chaparrito