Imperfect subjunctive question

Question

I was reading this article about the imperfect subjunctive: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/100058/imperfect-subjunctive , and I'm wondering about bullet number three, using ojalá with uncertain events. Specifically this example: "Ojalá que nevara/nevase en Panamá mañana. (I hope it snows in Panama tomorrow.)". I don't understand why the imperfect subjuctive is used here. Nothing is being expressed in the past - it seems to me that this sentence would be better off using the present subjunctive. What am I doing wrong here?

Thank you.

Answer 1

The imperfect subjunctive is used to express wishes after ojalá. It implies a wish for something that most likely will not happen. The present subjunctive is used to wish for something that may happen.

Your example: Ojalá que nevara... I wish it would snow...

If it was in the present subjunctive : Ojalá que nieve.... it would translate as: I hope it snows....

Answer 2

Some things just don't translate very well from one language to another! You only have to look towards the "will have done" tense (the name is slipping my mind ahora!) to know how strange translations can be. You'll learn that later if you don't get my reference.

I think the most important part of that specific verb choice is that the idea is very unlikely. It's Panama! Switch Panama with "Saudi Arabia" and the picture may be much clearer to you.

Enjoy learning Spanish!