pasar verb question

Question

Hi,

I have a question about the verb pasar. This kind of related to a question I asked a week or so ago about the uses of pronouns like me, te, se, etc. with verbs that can be both pronomial and transitive (while meaning the same thing), but not totally.

On the spanishdict entry for pasar, it says (#9) that pasarlo bien means "to enjoy oneself, to have a good time". I don't think I've seen that notation before (with the do pronoun attached to the verb) - does this mean when the verb is conjugated, the "lo" is moved in front of the conjugated verb: "(yo) lo paso bien"?

Also, if you go down in the same entry to number 11 under the pronomial verb heading, it says: "pasárselo bien/mal -> to have a good/bad time" - the exact same definition, but this time adding an io pronoun. So is there any difference in meaning between these two, and if not, can the construction be used with or without the indirect object pronoun with the same meaning?

Thanks.i

Answer 1

Hmm. Ya got me stumped! I have never heard of that before.

You can always use the verb divertirse, though, and avoid all that confusion.