Te tengo a ti
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I understand that the phrase "Te tengo a ti" means I have you. Is this correct? If I had not had a translation I do not think I would have been able to figure it out grammatically. The pronoun usage has me confused. Is a ti simply used for emphasis? Can anyone please help? Thanks!
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updated JUL 17, 2010
posted by JoeyT
2 Answers
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Yes, that´s what it means and I believe the "a ti" is added for emphasis, as in
¿A ti te gustan las manzanas? - Do you like apples?
updated JUL 17, 2010
posted by Eddy
Thanks you have helped clear this up for me. - JoeyT, JUL 17, 2010
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Hello, and welcome to the forum. Yes, I'd translate it as "I have you" or "I've got you". It is redundant (it would be complete without the "a ti" at the end), but redundancy in this sort of situation is not incorrect in Spanish. It is used for emphasis, emphasizing the person who is had.
updated JUL 17, 2010
edited by MacFadden
posted by MacFadden
