HomeQ&AWhy "Fuera"?

Why "Fuera"?

2
votes

I have just read the following passage from El Zorro by Isabel Allende and I don't understand why FUERA and not FUE is used:

" Pelayo no reconoció el Indio, porque la noche en que fuera sorprendido cantándole en italiano a Juliana, por encargo de Moncado, sólo tuvo ojos para Diego..."

I can't see why the subjunctive would be used because the event was not a possibility but a fact. What am I missing here please?

Thanks,

Andrew

1469 views
updated JUL 16, 2010
posted by silverlake
Do you like the book? I think it is by far her weakest. I found the plot silly, and was so disappointed, as at her best she is absolutely brilliant! - Echoline, JUL 16, 2010
I am rather enjoying it, more for the elegance and style of her writing than the plot. My favourite would be House of the Spirits, which I should re-read in Spanish. - silverlake, JUL 16, 2010

3 Answers

1
vote

I think it's related to a narrative. I also often notice the use of subjunctive when talking about what happened once, one night, etc...

updated JUL 16, 2010
posted by swing
0
votes

Esta sonando mas poético a los ojos.

It sounds more poetic to the ears (of the listeners).

updated JUL 16, 2010
posted by JorgeViento
0
votes

It's style, my guess it's somewhat old narrative; maybe the writer is from Europe? I don't know. It's style.

updated JUL 16, 2010
posted by MadderSky
Es chilena pero creció en Perú. - samdie, JUL 16, 2010
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