"Él no haberle escrito..."
2
votes
This is part of a review question in a Spanish grammar book:
"Un muchacho reprocha a su novia el no haberle escrito cuando estaba ella en el extranjero."
The "Un muchacho reprocha a su novia" is no problem.
"The boy complains to his girlfriend."
It's the "el no haberle escrito..." that is throwing me.
"El?" "The?" The what? The letter? (understood?) (that) not has to me (she) written when she was abroad?
Or, am I off-base, here?
Or is the question written incorrectly?
1512 views
updated JUL 12, 2010
edited by --Mariana--
posted by wgschultz
2 Answers
1
vote
Think of it as the equivalent to:
(the fact of) not having written to him (el) no haberle escrito
In Spanish the infinitive (here "haber") is used as the English gerund.
haberle escrito
having written to him
updated JUL 12, 2010
posted by Delores--Lindsey
Thank you. - wgschultz, JUL 12, 2010
1
vote
Hola,
It is the fact that she didn't write him...
updated JUL 11, 2010
posted by LuisaGomezBartle
Really??? Why wouldn't "que" or "porque" work there rather than "el"? - wgschultz, JUL 11, 2010
