"Él no haberle escrito..."
This is part of a review question in a Spanish grammar book:
"Un muchacho reprocha a su novia el no haberle escrito cuando estaba ella en el extranjero."
The "Un muchacho reprocha a su novia" is no problem.
"The boy complains to his girlfriend."
It's the "el no haberle escrito..." that is throwing me.
"El?" "The?" The what? The letter? (understood?) (that) not has to me (she) written when she was abroad?
Or, am I off-base, here?
Or is the question written incorrectly?
Think of it as the equivalent to:
(the fact of) not having written to him (el) no haberle escrito
In Spanish the infinitive (here "haber") is used as the English gerund.
having written to him
It is the fact that she didn't write him...