HomeQ&AAdding a "S" to the end of perterit "tú form"

Adding a "S" to the end of perterit "tú form"

2
votes

I remember a user asking a question about this a while back. Why do native Spanish speaker add a "s"....

¿Por qué no me hablastes?

¿Ya comistes?

I and another user said it was incorrect. Maybe they just added the "s" because other "tú" forms had a "s" on the end... maybe it was just a bad habit.

I was doing some reading, and found this sonnet-

Here is just a small section of it.

Pues en un hora junto me llevastes

todo el bien que por términos me distes, 10

llevadme junto el mal que me dejastes.

So, now what do you think?

1571 views
updated MAY 30, 2010
posted by NikkiLR

4 Answers

2
votes

Bello poma de Garcilaso de la Vegasmile

En el castellano antiguo curiosamente se usaba esta forma que ahora se considera una vulgaridad:

Es un arcaísmo.

Aquí un ejemplo de

Luis de Góngora y Argote.

Cantastes, Rufo, tan heroicamente

De aquel César novel la augusta historia,

Que está dudosa entre los dos la gloria

Y a cuál se deba dar ninguno siente.

Y así la Fama, que hoy de gente en gente

Quiere que de los dos la igual memoria

Del tiempo y del olvido haya victoria,

Ciñe de lauro a cada cual la frente.

Debéis con gran razón ser igualados,

Pues fuistes cada cual único en su arte:

Él solo en armas, vos en letras solo,

Y al fin ambos igualmente ayudados:

Él de la espada del sangriento Marte,

Vos de la lira del sagrado Apolo.

Luis de Góngora y Argote, 1584 .

updated MAY 30, 2010
posted by 00494d19
That is what I was thinking... an old form :) - NikkiLR, MAY 30, 2010
1
vote

Okay, this is what I'm pretty sure it is: When you know someone really well in Spanish (like friends) you use the tú form, which adds an 's' to the end of most words. Ex: ¿Como estas tú? (informal 'How are you') instead of the formal ¿Como esta usted?

updated MAY 30, 2010
posted by lili5
That's true in the present tense, dear, but in the preterite. - Goyo, MAY 30, 2010
NIce answer anyway, lili, welcome to the forum:) - 00494d19, MAY 30, 2010
0
votes

Maybe I should mention that the poem was written by-

Garcilaso de la Vega

(1501-1536)

updated MAY 30, 2010
posted by NikkiLR
0
votes

I have a few ideas. I know in South America, such as Argentina and Chile, they use voseo. This way of speaking could be their slang second person singular form such as vos. Also, I think that perhaps could it be a mispelling of the second person plural perterite where it is very similar to the tú preterite with the 's' at the end.

updated MAY 30, 2010
posted by Preguntón
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